1. Which map uses more specific symbols for representation?.
A. Electric line map.
B. Topology map.
C. Water supply map.
D. Property map.
Answer = Water supply map
2. The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is_______________?.
A. straight line
B. parabolic
C. elliptical
D. combination of straight and parabolic.
Answer = straight line
3. The stopping sight distance depends upon_______________?.
A. total reaction time of driver
B. speed of vehicle
C. efficiency of brakes
D. all of the above.
Answer = all of the above
4. Coefficient of friction is less when the pavement surface is________________?.
A. rough
B. dry
C. smooth and dry
D. smooth and wet.
Answer = smooth and wet
5. Camber in the road is provided for_______________?.
A. effective drainage
B. counteracting the centrifugal force
C. having proper sight distance
D. none of the above.
Answer = effective drainage
6. On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is equal to______________?.
A. stopping distance
B. two times the stopping distance
C. half the stopping distance
D. three times the stopping distance.
Answer = two times the stopping distance
7. The shoulder provided along the road edge should be_______________?.
A. rougher than the traffic lanes
B. smoother than the traffic lanes
C. of same colour as that of the pavement
D. of very low load bearing capacity.
Answer = rougher than the traffic lanes
8. When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential movement of the wheels due to rotation, then it results in______________?.
A. slipping
B. skidding
C. turning
D. revolving.
Answer = skidding
9. For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended value of camber is_______________?.
A. 1 in 30
B. 1 in 36
C. 1 in 48
D. 1 in 60.
Answer = 1 in 36
10. The sequence of four stages of survey in a highway alignment is______________?.
A. reconnaissance, map study, preliminary survey and detailed survey
B. map study, preliminary survey, reconnaissance and detailed survey
C. map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey
D. preliminary survey, map study, reconnaissance and detailed survey.
Answer = map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey
11. Nagpur road plan formula were prepared by assuming______________?.
A. rectangular or block road pattern
B. radial or star and block road pattern
C. radial or star and circular road pattern
D. radial or star and grid road pattern.
Answer = radial or star and grid road pattern
12. Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping sight distance is_______________?.
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. dependent on the speed.
Answer = more
13. The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to________________?.
A. overtaking sight distance
B. two times the overtaking sight distance
C. three times the overtaking sight distance
D. five times the overtaking sight distance.
Answer = five times the overtaking sight distance
14. Select the correct statement______________?.
A. Nagpur road plan formula take into account the towns with very large population
B. Nagpur road plan has a target road length of 32 km per 100 square km
C. Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed National highway
D. Second 20-year plan allowed deduction of length of railway track in the area while calculating the length of roads.
Answer = Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed National highway
15. Reaction time of a driver_______________?.
A. increases with increase in speed
B. decreases with increase in speed
C. is same for all speeds
D. none of the above.
Answer = decreases with increase in speed
16. If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for two lane, two way traffic is_________________?.
A. 30m
B. 60m
C. 120m
D. 180m.
Answer = 60m
17. If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the centrifugal ratio should always be________________?.
A. less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
B. less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction
C. greater than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction
D. greater than b/2h and also greater than coefficient of lateral friction.
Answer = less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction
18. The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC recommendations is_____________?.
A. 60 kmph
B. 80 kmph
C. 100 kmph
D. 120 kmph.
Answer = 100 kmph
19. The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distance is_______________?.
A. to increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades
B. to decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending grades
C. to increase it on both descending and ascending grades
D. to decrease it on both descending and ascending grades.
Answer = to increase it on both descending and ascending grades
20. Stopping sight distance is always_______________?.
A. less than overtaking sight distance
B. equal to overtaking sight distance
C. more than overtaking sight distance
D. none of the above.
Answer = less than overtaking sight distance
21. The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is______________?.
A. upto 10%
B. between 10% and 25%
C. between 25% and 60%
D. more than 60%.
Answer = between 10% and 25%
22. For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced by_____________?.
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 75%.
Answer = 25%
23. For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-elevation increases with_______________?.
A. increase in both speed and radius of curve
B. decrease in both speed and radius of curve
C. increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve
D. decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve.
Answer = decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve
24. As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed traffic in plain terrain is_______________?.
A. 1 in 15
B. 1 in 12.5
C. 1 in 10
D. equal to camber.
Answer = 1 in 15
25. On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then the pressure on the outer wheels will be_________________?.
A. more than the pressure on inner wheels
B. less than the pressure on inner wheels
C. equal to the pressure on inner wheels.
D. None of the mentioned.
Answer = more than the pressure on inner wheels
26. The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of the pavement_______________?.
A. is preferable in steep terrain
B. results in balancing the earthwork
C. avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain
D. does not change the vertical alignment of road.
Answer = avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain
27. To calculate the minimum value of ruling radius of horizontal curves in plains, the design speed is given by_________________?.
A. 8 kmph
B. 12kmph
C. 16kmph
D. 20 kmph.
Answer = 16kmph
28. In case of hill roads, the extra widening is generally provided______________?.
A. equally on inner and outer sides of the curve
B. fully on the inner side of the curve
C. fully on the outer side of the curve
D. one-fourth on inner side and three-fourth on outer side of the curve.
Answer = fully on the inner side of the curve
29. The maximum design gradient for vertical profile of a road is______________?.
A. ruling gradient
B. limiting gradient
C. exceptional gradient
D. minimum gradient.
Answer = ruling gradient
30. The transition curve used in the horizontal alignment of highways as per IRC recommendations is_______________?.
A. spiral
B. lemniscate
C. cubic parabola
D. any of the above.
Answer = spiral
31. The absolute minimum radius of curve for safe operation for a speed of 110 kmph is______________?.
A. 110 m
B. 220 m
C. 440 m
D. 577 m.
Answer = 440 m
32. Select the correct statement_________________?.
A. Psychological extra widening depends on the number of traffic lanes.
B. Mechanical extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
C. Psychological extra widening depends on the length of wheel base.
D. Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
Answer = Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle
33. For design, that length of transition curve should be taken which is_____________?.
A. based on allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
B. based on rate of change of super elevation
C. higher of (A) and (B)
D. smaller of (A) and (B).
Answer = higher of (A) and (B)
34. If ruling gradient is I in 20 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 76 m, then the compensated grade should be_________________?.
A. 3 %
B. 4%
C. 5 %
D. 6%.
Answer = 4%
35. Which of the following shapes is preferred in a valley curve ?.
A. simple parabola
B. cubic parabola
C. spiral
D. lemniscate.
Answer = cubic parabola
36. The percentage compensation in gradient for ruling gradient of 4% and horizontal curve of radius 760 m is____________________?.
A. 0.1 %
B. 1 %
C. 10%
D. no compensation.
Answer = no compensation
37. The camber of road should be approximately equal to___________________?.
A. longitudinal gradient
B. two times the longitudinal gradient
C. three times the longitudinal gradient
D. half the longitudinal gradient.
Answer = half the longitudinal gradient
38. In case of summit curves, the deviation angle will be maximum when_______________?.
A. an ascending gradient meets with another ascending gradient
B. an ascending gradient meets with a descending gradient
C. a descending gradient meets with another descending gradient
D. an ascending gradient meets with a level surface.
Answer = an ascending gradient meets with a descending gradient
39. Enoscope is used to find______________?.
A. average speed
B. spot speed
C. space-mean speed
D. time-mean speed.
Answer = spot speed
40. If an ascending gradient of 1 in 50 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 50, the length of summit curve for a stopping sight distance of 80 m will be_______________?.
A. zero
B. 64m
C. 80m
D. 60m.
Answer = 60m
41. The value of ruling gradient in plains as per IRC recommendation is______________?.
A. 1 in 12
B. 1 m 15
C. 1 in 20
D. 1 in 30.
Answer = 1 in 30
42. Equivalent factor of passenger car unit (PCU) for a passenger car as per IRC is_____________?.
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 0.5
D. 10.
Answer = 1.0
43. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles________________?.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
D. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed.
Answer = increases
44. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the lane________________?.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
D. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed.
Answer = first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
45. If the stopping distance and average length of a vehicle are 18 m and 6 m respectively, then the theoretical maxi¬mum capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 10 m/sec is________________?.
A. 1500 vehicles per hour
B. 2000 vehicles per hour
C. 2500 vehicles per hour
D. 3000 vehicles per hour.
Answer = 1500 vehicles per hour
46. The diagram which shows all important physical conditions of an accident location like roadway limits, bridges, trees and all details of roadway conditions is known as_____________?.
A. pie chart
B. spot maps
C. condition diagram
D. collision diagram.
Answer = condition diagram
47. The background colour of the informatory sign board is______________?.
A. red
B. yellow
C. green
D. white.
Answer = yellow
48. When the speed of traffic flow becomes zero,then_______________?.
A. traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
B. traffic density and traffic volume both attain maximum value
C. traffic density and traffic volume both become zero
D. traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains maximum value.
Answer = traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
49. Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities should be based on_____________?.
A. spot speed data
B. origin and destination data
C. traffic volume data
D. accident data.
Answer = origin and destination data
50. On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict points is______________?.
A. 6
B. 11
C. 18
D. 24.
Answer = 24
51. Which of the following is indicated by a warning sign ?.
A. level crossing
B. no parking
C. end of speed limit
D. overtaking prohibited.
Answer = level crossing
52. The most efficient traffic signal system is________________?.
A. simultaneous system
B. alternate system
C. flexible progressive system
D. simple progressive system.
Answer = flexible progressive system
53. Select the incorrect statement?.
A. Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross flow
B. Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross flow
C. Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds
D. The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals.
Answer = Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross flow
54. “Dead Slow” is a______________?.
A. regulatory sign
B. warning sign
C. informatory sign
D. none of the above.
Answer = regulatory sign
55. The provision of traffic signals at intersections______________?.
A. reduces right angled and rear end collisions
B. increases right angled and rear end collisions
C. reduces right angled collisions but may increase rear end collisions
D. reduces rear end collisions but may increase right angled collisions.
Answer = reduces right angled collisions but may increase rear end collisions
56. The particular places where pedestrians are to cross the pavement are properly marked by the pavement marking known as________________?.
A. stop lines
B. turn markings
C. crosswalk lines
D. lane lines.
Answer = crosswalk lines
57. When two equally important roads cross roughly at right angles, the suitable shape of central island is________________?.
A. circular
B. elliptical
C. tangent
D. turbine.
Answer = circular
58. Centre line markings are used_____________?.
A. to designate traffic lanes
B. in roadways meant for two way traffic
C. to indicate that overtaking is not permitted
D. to designate proper lateral placement of vehicles before turning to different directions.
Answer = in roadways meant for two way traffic
59. The entrance and exit curves of a rotary have_______________?.
A. equal radii and equal widths of pavement
B. equal radii but pavement width is more at entrance than at exit curve
C. equal pavement widths but radius is more at entrance curve than at exit curve
D. different radii and different widths of pavement.
Answer = different radii and different widths of pavement
60. The maximum number of vehicles beyond which the rotary may not function efficiently is______________?.
A. 500 vehicles per hour
B. 500 vehicles per day
C. 5000 vehicles per hour
D. 5000 vehicles per day.
Answer = 5000 vehicles per hour
61. As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads carrying fast traffic is______________?.
A. 10 lux
B. 15 lux
C. 20 lux
D. 30 lux.
Answer = 30 lux
62. Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with_______________?.
A. parallel parking
B. 30° angle parking
C. 45° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking.
Answer = 90° angle parking
63. A traffic rotary is justified where______________?.
A. number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7
B. space is limited and costly
C. when traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour
D. when traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour.
Answer = number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7
64. When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is important, then the suitable shape of rotary is________________?.
A. circular
B. tangent
C. elliptical
D. turbine.
Answer = tangent
65. When the width of kerb parking space and width of street are limited, generally preferred parking system is________________?.
A. parallel parking
B. 45° angle parking
C. 65° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking.
Answer = parallel parking
66. The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is_______________?.
A. single side lighting
B. staggered system
C. central lighting system
D. none of the above.
Answer = single side lighting
67. In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then_____________?.
A. compressibility and permeability decrease and dry strength increases
B. compressibility, permeability and dry strength decrease
C. compressibility, permeability and dry strength increase
D. compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases.
Answer = compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases
68. Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct______________?.
A. abrasion test
B. impact test
C. attrition test
D. crushing strength test.
Answer = abrasion test
69. The direct interchange ramp involves____________?.
A. diverging to the right side and merging from left
B. diverging to the left side and merging from right
C. diverging to the right side and merging from right
D. diverging to the left side and merging from left.
Answer = diverging to the right side and merging from right
70. Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates ?.
A. crushing strength test
B. abrasion test
C. impact test
D. shape test.
Answer = impact test
71. If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as_______________?.
A. exceptionally strong
B. strong
C. satisfactory for road surfacing
D. unsuitable for road surfacing.
Answer = satisfactory for road surfacing
72. Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is______________?.
A. more than that in tar
B. less than that in tar
C. equal to that in tar
D. none of the above.
Answer = less than that in tar
73. In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at_______________?.
A. 2.5 mm penetration only
B. 5.0 mm penetration only
C. 7.5 mm penetration only
D. both 2.5mm and 5.0 mm penetrations.
Answer = both 2.5mm and 5.0 mm penetrations
74. The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course is_______________?.
A. 10%
B. 20 %
C. 30%
D. 45 %.
Answer = 30%
75. The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less than____________?.
A. 30 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 60 cm.
Answer = 50 cm
76. Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen ?.
A. 30/40
B. 60/70
C. 80/100
D. 100/120.
Answer = 30/40
77. Bitumen of grade 80/100 means______________?.
A. its penetration value is 8 mm
B. its penetration value is 10 mm
C. its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
D. its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm.
Answer = its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
78. Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where maximum temperature is 40° C should be______________?.
A. less-than 40°C
B. greater than 40°C
C. equal to 40°C
D. none of the above.
Answer = greater than 40°C
79. The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10 percent and percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve is 35, is______________?.
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7.
Answer = 0
80. Group index method of design of flexible pavement is_______________?.
A. a theoretical method
B. an empirical method based on physical properties of subgrade soil
C. an empirical method based on strength characteristics of subgrade soil
D. a semi empirical method.
Answer = an empirical method based on physical properties of subgrade soil
81. Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load_____________?.
A. directly to subgrade
B. through structural action
C. through a set of layers to the subgrade
D. none of the above.
Answer = through a set of layers to the subgrade
82. The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is____________?.
A. group index method
B. CBR method
C. Westergaard method
D. Benkelman beam method.
Answer = CBR method
83. Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its_____________?.
A. grade
B. viscosity
C. ductility
D. temperature susceptibility.
Answer = grade
84. The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is_______________?.
A. RT-1
B. RT-2
C. RT.3
D. RT-5.
Answer = RT-5
85. The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road construction is____________?.
A. 0.4 %
B. 0.6%
C. 0.8 %
D. 1.0 %.
Answer = 0.6%
86. RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to_______________?.
A. same viscosity
B. viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
C. viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
D. none of the above.
Answer = same viscosity
87. For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is______________?.
A. gasoline
B. kerosene oil
C. light diesel
D. heavy diesel.
Answer = gasoline
88. Bottom most layer of pavement is known as_____________?.
A. wearing course
B. base course
C. sub-base course
D. subgrade.
Answer = subgrade
89. The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given wheel load should be able to support during the life of pavement is______________?.
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 100000
D. 1000000.
Answer = 1000000
90. Tyre pressure influences the______________?.
A. total depth of pavement
B. quality of surface course
C. both the above
D. none of the above.
Answer = quality of surface course
91. Select the correct statement______________?.
A. More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required
B. More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required
C. Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively
D. all of the above.
Answer = Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively
92. Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm2 is_______________?.
A. equal to 1
B. less than 1
C. greater than 1
D. zero.
Answer = less than 1
93. Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at______________?.
A. expansion joints
B. contraction joints
C. warping joints
D. longitudinal joints.
Answer = longitudinal joints
94. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to______________?.
A. relieve warping stresses
B. relieve shrinkage stresses
C. resist stresses due to expansion
D. allow free expansion.
Answer = allow free expansion
95. The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is_____________?.
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5m.
Answer = 4.5 m
96. The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is____________?.
A. load stress + warping stress frictional stress
B. load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
C. load stress + warping stress
D. load stress + frictional stress.
Answer = load stress + warping stress
97. If the group index value of subgrade is between 5 and 9, then the subgrade is treated as_____________?.
A. good
B. fair
C. poor
D. very poor.
Answer = poor
98. The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is______________?.
A. 0
B. 25 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 100 mm.
Answer = 25 mm
99. The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is_____________?.
A. climatic condition
B. type and intensity of traffic
C. subgrade soil and drainage conditions
D. availability of funds for the construction project.
Answer = type and intensity of traffic
100. Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is______________?.
A. 500 tonnes per day
B. 1000 tonnes per day
C. 1500 tonnes per day
D. 2000 tonnes per day.
Answer = 1500 tonnes per day
101. The aggregates required for one kilometer length of water bound macadam road per meter width and for 10 mm thickness is________________?.
A. 8 cubic meter
B. 10 cubic meter
C. 12 cubic meter
D. 15 cubic meter.
Answer = 12 cubic meter
102. The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is________________?.
A. cement
B. lime
C. bitumen
D. none of the above.
Answer = bitumen
103. For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of operations after spreading coarse aggregates is________________?.
A. dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler
B. dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
C. dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
D. dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling.
Answer = dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
104. When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over existing cement concrete road, the type of treatment to be given is________________?.
A. seal coat
B. tack coat
C. prime coat
D. spray of emulsion.
Answer = tack coat
105. The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a_______________?.
A. smooth wheeled roller
B. pneumatic tyred roller
C. sheep foot roller
D. vibrator.
Answer = sheep foot roller
106. Most suitable material for highway embankments is______________?.
A. granular soil
B. organic soil
C. silts
D. clays.
Answer = granular soil
107. The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is________________?.
A. equal to the cross slope of pavement
B. less than the cross slope of pavement
C. greater than the cross slope of pavement
D. zero.
Answer = equal to the cross slope of pavement
108. In highway construction, rolling starts from________________?.
A. sides and proceed to centre
B. centre and proceed to sides
C. one side and proceed to other side
D. any of the above.
Answer = sides and proceed to centre
109. In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is__________________?.
A. sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted
B. premixed with aggregates and then spread
C. sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted
D. none of the above.
Answer = sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted
110. Which of the following premix methods is used for base course ?.
A. bituminous carpet
B. mastic asphalt
C. sheet asphalt
D. bituminous bound macadam.
Answer = bituminous bound macadam
111. The suitable surfacing material for a bridge deck slab is________________?.
A. sheet asphalt
B. bituminous carpet
C. mastic asphalt
D. rolled asphalt.
Answer = mastic asphalt
112. The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from__________________?.
A. 20 to 25 mm
B. 50 to 75 mm
C. 75 to 100 mm
D. 100 to 120 mm.
Answer = 20 to 25 mm
113. Select the correct statement________________?.
A. Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat
B. Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during bituminous road construction
C. Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements
D. A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback.
Answer = A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback
114. Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the group of black top pavements ?.
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete.
Answer = bituminous concrete
115. Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates ?.
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete.
Answer = sheet asphalt
116. The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water from hill slopes is known as_______________?.
A. sloping drain
B. catchwater drain
C. side drain
D. cross drain.
Answer = catchwater drain
117. In hill roads the side drains arc provided________________?.
A. only on the hill side of road
B. only on the opposite side of hill
C. on both sides of road
D. none of the above.
Answer = only on the hill side of road
118. The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as_______________?.
A. 20 kmph
B. 30 kmph
C. 40 kmph
D. 50 kmph.
Answer = 20 kmph
119. In highway construction on super elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed from_________________?.
A. sides towards the centre
B. centre towards the sides
C. lower edge towards the upper edge
D. upper edge towards the lower edge.
Answer = lower edge towards the upper edge
120. The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as________________?.
A. 2%
B. 2.5%
C. 3%
D. 4%.
Answer = 2.5%
121. The main objective of transportation is?.
A. Economical transport of goods.
B. Economical transport of passengers.
C. To generate revenue.
D. Safe economical and efficient transport of goods and passengers.
Answer = Safe economical and efficient transport of goods and passengers
122. The factors influencing the cost of transportation are?.
A. Supply.
B. Demand.
C. Both supply and demand.
D. Cost of land.
Answer = Both supply and demand
123. Which is the most flexible type of transportation available?.
A. Roadway.
B. Railway.
C. Waterway.
D. Airway.
Answer = Roadway
124. The transportation system that requires a low initial investment among the following is?.
A. Roadway.
B. Railway.
C. Harbour.
D. Airport.
Answer = Roadway
125. The scope of highway engineering is divided into how many parts..
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Two
126. Planning is based on.
A. Factual data.
B. Analysis.
C. Scientific data.
D. Factual data and analysis.
Answer = Factual data and analysis
127. The estimates are studied in which type of studies?.
A. Economic studies.
B. Financial studies.
C. Traffic studies.
D. Engineering studies.
Answer = Economic studies
128. The revenue from road transport sector is studied in which type of studies?.
A. Economic.
B. Financial.
C. Traffic.
D. Engineering.
Answer = Financial
129. The accident cost analysis is estimated by conducting.
A. Origin and destination.
B. Traffic survey.
C. Transportation facilities.
D. Geometric design.
Answer = Traffic survey
130. The topographic survey is conducted to estimate which of the following characteristics?.
A. Engineering.
B. Traffic.
C. Financial.
D. Soil.
Answer = Engineering
131. The master plan may not be prepared for.
A. Village.
B. City.
C. State.
D. Country.
Answer = Village
132. The determination of optimum length is based on.
A. Saturation system.
B. Geometric design.
C. Type of highway.
D. Length of highway.
Answer = Saturation system
133. The final step after fixing the optimum length of the road.
A. Financing.
B. Construction.
C. Phasing.
D. Preparation of master plan.
Answer = Phasing
134. The utility unit as per saturation system for a population of less 1001 to 2000 is.
A. 0.25.
B. 0.5.
C. 1.0.
D. 2.0.
Answer = 1.0
135. The changes in gradient and vertical curve are covered under which type of alignment?.
A. Horizontal alignment.
B. Vertical alignment.
C. Geometric design.
D. Highway specifications.
Answer = Vertical alignment
136. The improper alignment of road will not result in.
A. Increase of construction cost.
B. Increase of maintenance cost.
C. Increase of population.
D. Increase of accidents.
Answer = Increase of population
137. The basic requirement of alignment should be.
A. Short.
B. Easy.
C. Safe.
D. Short, easy, safe and economical.
Answer = Short, easy, safe and economical
138. The economical option during the construction of a road around a hill is.
A. Cut the hill.
B. Provide a tunnel.
C. Provide a road around the hill.
D. Look for other alternative approach.
Answer = Provide a road around the hill
139. Obligatory points through which the alignment should not pass are.
A. Religious structure and costly structures.
B. Intermediate towns.
C. Important cities.
D. Important places of worship.
Answer = Religious structure and costly structures
140. The desire lines are prepared for the study of.
A. Traffic flow.
B. Origin and destination.
C. Growth of traffic in future.
D. Anticipated traffic flow.
Answer = Traffic flow
141. Which of the following types of roads are most preferred for highways?.
A. Cement concrete roads.
B. Gravel roads.
C. Bituminous roads.
D. Unpaved surfaces.
Answer = Bituminous roads
142. The stability of slopes is considered while designing.
A. National highway.
B. State highway.
C. Hill roads.
D. District roads.
Answer = Hill roads
143. The coefficient of lateral friction as recommended by IRC is.
A. 0.15.
B. 0.4.
C. 0.35.
D. 0.3.
Answer = 0.15
144. The resisting length should be kept.
A. minimum.
B. Maximum.
C. Depends on gradient.
D. Depends on rise and fall.
Answer = minimum
145. The surveys of highway alignment are completed in how many stages?.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Four
146. The survey in which details are covered roughly but not accurately is called.
A. Reconnaissance.
B. Rough survey.
C. Map study.
D. Detailed study.
Answer = Reconnaissance
147. The soil survey is conducted in which of the following survey?.
A. Preliminary survey.
B. Reconnaissance survey.
C. Map study.
D. Topography study.
Answer = Preliminary survey
148. A closed loop used for survey purpose is called.
A. Open traverse.
B. Closed traverse.
C. Primary traverse.
D. Secondary traverse.
Answer = Closed traverse
149. Expand GPS.
A. Global position satellite.
B. Global perception satellite.
C. Global position system.
D. Geographical position system.
Answer = Global position system
150. The intervals for levelling work in rolling terrain are taken as.
A. 50m.
B. 30 m.
C. 45 m.
D. 40 m.
Answer = 50m
151. The first step in preliminary survey is.
A. Primary traverse.
B. Map study.
C. Detailed survey.
D. Detailed project report.
Answer = Primary traverse
152. The surface thickness of the pavement is decided based on.
A. HFL.
B. MFL.
C. MSL.
D. HFL and MSL.
Answer = HFL
153. The key map size should not exceed.
A. 20*22 cm.
B. 32*20 cm.
C. 32*32 cm.
D. 20*32 cm.
Answer = 20*22 cm
154. The index map shows.
A. Topography.
B. Soil.
C. Area of the site.
D. Plan.
Answer = Topography
155. Detailed size drawings are prepared in which sheet?.
A. A1.
B. A2.
C. A3.
D. A4.
Answer = A2
156. The cross sections should be drawn for every.
A. 10m.
B. 20m.
C. 50m.
D. 100m.
Answer = 100m
157. The approximate cost of construction evaluated for the project is called.
A. Project report.
B. Project feasibility.
C. Estimate.
D. Detailed project report.
Answer = Estimate
158. Detailed project report or DPR is the report that is created after all the surveys and estimates have been prepared for a final review..
A. The planning, design and construction of either a network of new roads or road link is called.
B. Highway project.
C. Highway estimate.
D. Highway interlinking.
Answer = The planning, design and construction of either a network of new roads or road link is called
159. Highway should be planned for.
A. Present requirements.
B. Traffic developments.
C. Traffic studies.
D. Present requirements and future requirements.
Answer = Present requirements and future requirements
160. The New highway project is divided into how many stages?.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Three
161. A part of land that is acquired during initial stages of construction for future expansion is called.
A. Kerb.
B. Footpath.
C. Right of way.
D. Camber.
Answer = Right of way
162. Which method is recommended by IRC for flexible pavements?.
A. CBR.
B. IRC 6.
C. IRC 21.
D. IRC 58.
Answer = CBR
163. Inspection of site is done in which survey?.
A. Preliminary.
B. Secondary.
C. Reconnaissance.
D. Final report.
Answer = Reconnaissance
164. Road roughness is tested by.
A. Bump integrator.
B. RTRRMS.
C. GIS.
D. UI.
Answer = Bump integrator
165. To minimize the cost of the project the most suitable method is.
A. CPM.
B. PERT.
C. CPM and PERT.
D. Normal distribution curves.
Answer = CPM
166. The highly flooded areas should be re aligned by.
A. Providing additional thickness of pavement.
B. Providing suitable layers of pavement.
C. Providing appropriate camber.
D. Providing higher geometric specifications.
Answer = Providing additional thickness of pavement
167. Embankments are provided on highway near.
A. Important cities.
B. Religious structure.
C. Railway tracks and highly flooded area.
D. Costly structures.
Answer = Railway tracks and highly flooded area
168. The drawing for re alignment shows the existing road, proposed re alignment, contours and all other features it is called as.
A. Plan.
B. Elevation.
C. Cross section.
D. Longitudinal section.
Answer = Plan
169. The DPR consists of how many components?.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Three
170. The first step in the detail checklist of DPR is.
A. Executive summary.
B. Background.
C. Roadway features.
D. General details of the project.
Answer = Executive summary
171. The name of the work and project details is managed under which category of DPR?.
A. Executive summary.
B. Background.
C. Roadway details.
D. General details.
Answer = Background
172. The roadway features include the study of.
A. Accidental analysis.
B. Geometric design.
C. Route alignment.
D. Safety.
Answer = Route alignment
173. The final step in the specifications and design of roadway elements is.
A. Specifications.
B. Design elements.
C. Geometric design.
D. Safety and audit of the design elements.
Answer = Safety and audit of the design elements
174. Which of the following is not a structure constructed for drainage purposes?.
A. Aqueduct.
B. Syphon aqueduct.
C. Level crossing.
D. Pitot tube.
Answer = Pitot tube
175. The strength of the materials can be checked by.
A. Visual inspection.
B. Quality control.
C. By asking the manufacturer.
D. By referring to various codes.
Answer = Quality control
176. For small projects which type of method is used for calculation of project time?.
A. Milestone chart.
B. Bar chart.
C. PERT.
D. CPM.
Answer = Bar chart
177. Which of the following is prepared first during estimate?.
A. Schedule of rates.
B. Rate analysis.
C. Detailed cost estimate.
D. Detailed project.
Answer = Schedule of rates
178. The site amenities are covered under which of the items of DPR?.
A. Background.
B. Abstract.
C. Miscellaneous.
D. Estimate.
Answer = Miscellaneous
179. The design of horizontal and vertical alignments, super elevation, gradient is worst affected by.
A. Length of vehicle.
B. Width of vehicle.
C. Speed of vehicle.
D. Height of vehicle.
Answer = Speed of vehicle
180. The most raised portion of the pavement is called.
A. Super elevation.
B. Camber.
C. Crown.
D. Kerb.
Answer = Crown
181. The extra width of pavement is provided on.
A. Horizontal curve.
B. Width of pavement.
C. Length of pavement.
D. Super elevation.
Answer = Horizontal curve
182. Transition curve is introduced in.
A. Horizontal curve.
B. Circular curve.
C. Between horizontal curve and circular curve.
D. Vertical curve.
Answer = Between horizontal curve and circular curve
183. The most important factor that is required for road geometrics is.
A. SSD.
B. OSD.
C. ISD.
D. Speed of vehicle.
Answer = Speed of vehicle
184. The design speed of NH on a cross slope of up to 10% is.
A. 100kmph.
B. 80kmph.
C. 60kmph.
D. 50kmph.
Answer = 100kmph
185. A part of pavement raised with respect to one side keeping the other side constant is called.
A. Footpath.
B. Kerb.
C. Super elevation.
D. Camber.
Answer = Super elevation
186. The main purpose of providing camber is.
A. To collect storm water.
B. To maintain equilibrium.
C. To follow IRC specifications.
D. To follow geometric specifications.
Answer = To collect storm water
187. The braking efficiency mainly depends on.
A. Sight distance.
B. PIEV theory.
C. Friction.
D. Length of the curve.
Answer = Friction
188. The braking efficiency for a vehicle moving with a speed of 18kmph, having a lag distance of 14m and coefficient of longitudinal friction is 0.36.
A. 0.2528.
B. 0.254.
C. 0.256.
D. 0.258.
Answer = 0.2528
189. If the longitude coefficient of friction is 0.4, then the resultant retardation in m/sec2 as per IRC will be.
A. 3.93.
B. 4.0.
C. 4.01.
D. 4.02.
Answer = 3.93
190. The unevenness index for a good pavement surface of high speed should be.
A. 1500mm/km.
B. 2500mm/km.
C. 3500mm/km.
D. 4500mm/km.
Answer = 1500mm/km
191. If the camber is x%, then cross slope is.
A. 100X.
B. 200/X.
C. X/100.
D. 100+X.
Answer = X/100
192. The camber required depends on.
A. Type of pavement.
B. Rainfall.
C. Type of pavement and rainfall.
D. Rainfall characteristics.
Answer = Type of pavement and rainfall
193. The minimum camber required in heavy rainfall area for bituminous roads as per IRC is.
A. 0.01.
B. 0.025.
C. 0.027.
D. 0.03.
Answer = 0.025
194. The camber is not provided in which of the following shape.
A. Straight.
B. Parabolic.
C. Combination of straight and parabolic.
D. Circular.
Answer = Circular
195. The rise of crown for a pavement of 7m wide having 1 in 50 slopes with respect to edges is.
A. 0.14.
B. 0.07.
C. 0.09.
D. 0.11.
Answer = 0.07
196. The equation of parabolic camber is given by.
A. Y=x/a.
B. Y=x2/a.
C. Y=x3/a.
D. Y=ax2.
Answer = Y=x2/a
197. The minimum width of carriage way in urban roads is.
A. 2.5m.
B. 3.0m.
C. 3.5m.
D. 3.75m.
Answer = 3.75m
198. A median is also called as.
A. Traffic separator.
B. Traffic junction.
C. Traffic check post.
D. Traffic flow.
Answer = Traffic separator
199. The desirable width as per IRC for median on rural roads is.
A. 3m.
B. 5m.
C. 8m.
D. 14m.
Answer = 5m
200. The height of low kerb is kept about.
A. 50mm.
B. 75mm.
C. 100mm.
D. 200mm.
Answer = 100mm
201. The minimum shoulder width recommended by IRC is.
A. 1.0m.
B. 1.5m.
C. 2.0m.
D. 2.5m.
Answer = 2.5m
202. The width of drive way should be.
A. Minimum.
B. Maximum.
C. Intermediate.
D. Maximum or minimum.
Answer = Minimum
203. A road running parallel to highway for some selected areas with grade separator are called.
A. Footage road.
B. Urban road.
C. Frontage road.
D. Parallel highway.
Answer = Frontage road
204. The width of formation is calculated by adding.
A. Sum of width of pavements.
B. Width of pavement+ separators.
C. Width of pavement + separators +shoulders.
D. Width of pavement + separator+ shoulders + side drains.
Answer = Width of pavement + separators +shoulders
205. The boundary till which building activities are prohibited is called.
A. Right of way.
B. Boundary line.
C. Building line.
D. Control line.
Answer = Building line
206. The normal width recommended in rural areas by IRC for national highway is.
A. 45m.
B. 29 m.
C. 60 m.
D. 25 m.
Answer = 45m
207. The length visible to driver at any instance of time is called.
A. Sight distance.
B. Visibility limit.
C. Head light distance.
D. Overtaking sight distance.
Answer = Sight distance
208. The stopping sight distance of a vehicle moving with 45kmph and having a coefficient of friction as 0.4 is.
A. 48m.
B. 49m.
C. 50m.
D. 51m.
Answer = 51m
209. The stopping sight distance does not depend on.
A. Break reaction time.
B. Speed of vehicle.
C. Length of vehicle.
D. Friction.
Answer = Length of vehicle
210. The SSD is based on.
A. Speed of vehicle.
B. PIEV theory.
C. Voluntary action of brain.
D. Reflex action of brain.
Answer = PIEV theory
211. The reaction time considered in SSD is.
A. 1.5 sec.
B. 2 sec.
C. 2.5 sec.
D. 3 sec.
Answer = 2.5 sec
212. The desirable relationship between OSD and length of overtaking zone is.
A. Length of overtaking zone=OSD.
B. Length of overtaking zone=2 OSD.
C. Length of overtaking zone = 3 OSD.
D. Length of overtaking zone = 5 OSD.
Answer = Length of overtaking zone = 5 OSD
213. If the speed of overtaken vehicle is 80Kmph, then the design speed is.
A. 80kmph.
B. 96kmph.
C. 100kmph.
D. 106kmph.
Answer = 100kmph
214. If the speed of overtaken vehicle is 50kmph then spacing of vehicles is.
A. 10m.
B. 12m.
C. 14m.
D. 16m.
Answer = 16m
215. The reaction time of a driver assumed in OSD is.
A. 1 sec.
B. 2 sec.
C. 2.5sec.
D. 3 sec.
Answer = 2 sec
216. The height of the driver above the road level is assumed as.
A. 1.1m.
B. 1.2 m.
C. 1.5 m.
D. 1.6m.
Answer = 1.2 m
217. The relationship between SSD and ISD is.
A. SSD= ISD.
B. SSD=1.5 SSD.
C. SSD= ISD+ OSD.
D. SSD= 2 ISD.
Answer = SSD= 2 ISD
218. The sight distance recommended by IRC for 50kmph speed is.
A. 100m.
B. 110m.
C. 120m.
D. 200m.
Answer = 110m
219. The degree if curve is central angle subtended by an arc of length.
A. 20m.
B. 25m.
C. 30m.
D. 35m.
Answer = 30m
220. The ratio between centrifugal force and weight of the vehicle is called.
A. Impact factor.
B. Impact ratio.
C. Centrifugal factor.
D. Centrifugal impulse.
Answer = Impact factor
221. Which of the following is equal to super elevation?.
A. Sinθ.
B. Cosθ.
C. Tanθ.
D. Secθ.
Answer = Tanθ
222. If the radius of a horizontal curve is 120m, then calculate the safe allowable speed.
A. 50kmph.
B. 60kmph.
C. 70kmph.
D. 80kmph.
Answer = 60kmph
223. If the super elevation of the highway provided is zero, then the design speed of highway having a curve of 200m and coefficient of friction 0.10 is.
A. 40kmph.
B. 50kmph.
C. 55kmph.
D. 60kmph.
Answer = 50kmph
224. The design speed on a highway is 60kmph; calculate the super elevation if radius of curve is 150m and coefficient of friction is 0.15.
A. 0.07.
B. 0.038.
C. 0.04.
D. 0.15.
Answer = 0.038
225. The super elevation is calculated for.
A. 75% of design speed including friction.
B. 80% of design speed neglecting friction.
C. 75% of design speed neglecting friction.
D. 80% of design speed including friction.
Answer = 75% of design speed neglecting friction
226. If the super elevation is 0.07 and width of pavement is 7m then the raise of outer edge with respect to inner edge is.
A. 0.47m.
B. 0.48m.
C. 0.49m.
D. 0.50m.
Answer = 0.49m
227. The ruling minimum radius in the curve is given by.
A. R=V2/127(e+f).
B. R=V'2/127 (e+f).
C. R=127 (e+f).
D. R=127/ (e+f).
Answer = R=V'2/127 (e+f)
228. The extra widening is the sum of.
A. Mechanical widening and psychological widening.
B. Two times of mechanical widening.
C. Two times of psychological widening.
D. Mechanical widening – physical widening.
Answer = Mechanical widening and psychological widening
229. The mechanical widening of a track is given by.
A. l^2/2R.
B. nl^2/2R.
C. nl^3/2R.
D. nl/2R.
Answer = nl^2/2R
230. The total off tracking of a vehicle having wheel base length as 6.1m and radius of curve 120m is.
A. 0.15.
B. 0.151.
C. 0.153.
D. 0.155.
Answer = 0.155
231. The extra width required on two lane pavement for a radius of curve 100m as recommended by IRC is.
A. 0.6m.
B. 0.7m.
C. 0.8m.
D. 0.9m.
Answer = 0.9m
232. The mechanical widening of a curve is 1.5m, the curve is having a radius of 120m and design speed as 80kmph find the total widening on the curve.
A. 2.20m.
B. 2.26m.
C. 2.25m.
D. 2.24m.
Answer = 2.26m
233. The most preferred type of transition curve by IRC for highway is.
A. Spiral.
B. Cubic parabola.
C. Parabola.
D. Lemniscate.
Answer = Parabola
234. The minimum value of change of centrifugal acceleration is.
A. 0.4m/sec^3.
B. 0.5m/sec^3.
C. 0.6m/sec^3.
D. 0.7m/sec^3.
Answer = 0.5m/sec^3
235. The rate of change of acceleration in m/sec3 for a design speed of 85kmph is.
A. 0.5.
B. 0.6.
C. 0.7.
D. 0.8.
Answer = 0.5
236. In a steep terrain the radius of curve is 100m and the design speed is 80kmph then the length of transition curve will be.
A. 44m.
B. 54m.
C. 64m.
D. 74m.
Answer = 64m
237. The total shift of a transition curve is.
A. L^2/12R.
B. L^2/24R.
C. L^2/48R.
D. L^2/96R.
Answer = L^2/24R
238. The vertical alignment of a highway includes.
A. Sight distance and traffic intersection.
B. Widening of pavements.
C. Design of valley curves and gradients.
D. Highway lighting.
Answer = Design of valley curves and gradients
239. The ruling gradient required for plain or rolling terrain is.
A. 1 in 15.
B. 1 in 20.
C. 1 in 30.
D. 1 in 40.
Answer = 1 in 30
240. The maximum grade compensation for a curve of radius 75m is.
A. 0.01.
B. 0.014.
C. 0.015.
D. 0.016.
Answer = 0.01
241. The vertical alignment does not influences.
A. Sight distance.
B. Vehicle operation cost.
C. Accidents.
D. Vehicle speed.
Answer = Accidents
242. The angle which is measured at the change of direction of two gradients is called.
A. Standard angle.
B. Subtended angle.
C. Deviation angle.
D. Setback angle.
Answer = Deviation angle
243. The length of summit curve is based on.
A. Comfort.
B. Sight distance.
C. Convexity.
D. Deviation angle.
Answer = Sight distance
244. The value of “a” in the equation y=ax2 used in the summit curve is.
A. N/2L.
B. N/3L.
C. N/4L.
D. N/5L.
Answer = N/2L
245. If the length of the summit curve having SSD as 150m and deviation angle is 1 in 30 is.
A. 50m.
B. 100m.
C. 150m.
D. 170m.
Answer = 50m
246. If the deviation angle of the curve is 1/200 and the design speed is 80kmph then calculate the total length of the valley curve for comfort condition.
A. 18.22.
B. 18.52.
C. 19.22m.
D. 19.52m.
Answer = 19.22m
247. The equation for L<OSD for summit curve is given by.
A. NS/8H.
B. NS^2/8H.
C. NS^2/10H.
D. NS^2/12H.
Answer = NS^2/8H
248. The minimum length of vertical curve recommended by IRC for a design speed of 100kmph is.
A. 30m.
B. 40m.
C. 50m.
D. 60m.
Answer = 60m
249. The branch of engineering that deals with improvement of traffic performance, traffic studies and traffic network is called.
A. Highway engineering.
B. Railway engineering.
C. Traffic engineering.
D. Traffic management.
Answer = Traffic engineering
250. The basic objective of traffic engineering is to achieve.
A. Efficient, free and rapid flow of traffic with least priority given to accidents.
B. Efficient, free and rapid flow of traffic with fewer accidents.
C. Efficient and rapid flow of traffic.
D. Rapid flow of traffic.
Answer = Efficient, free and rapid flow of traffic with fewer accidents
251. The study of traffic engineering is divided into how many major categories?.
A. Five.
B. Six.
C. Seven.
D. Eight.
Answer = Seven
252. The “3-Es” of traffic engineering stand for.
A. Enforcement, empowerment and eradication.
B. Engineering, education and expulsion.
C. Engineering, education and enforcement.
D. Engineering, education and enthusiasm.
Answer = Engineering, education and enforcement
253. In traffic engineering the elements are classified into how many categories?.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Two
254. Which of the following roads are congested during peak hours?.
A. Rural roads.
B. Urban roads.
C. Highways.
D. Express ways.
Answer = Urban roads
255. The traffic survey is conducted during.
A. Harvest season.
B. Harvest and lean season.
C. Rainy season.
D. Summer season.
Answer = Harvest and lean season
256. Design of road intersections is a part of.
A. Highway engineering.
B. Railway engineering.
C. Traffic engineering.
D. Harbour engineering.
Answer = Traffic engineering
257. The most important objective of traffic engineering is.
A. To consider pedestrians as obstruction.
B. To reduce the accidents.
C. To increase the traffic.
D. To provide a high speed road without any other priority.
Answer = To reduce the accidents
258. The difference in between the set of front axle and rear axle while negotiating a horizontal curve is called.
A. Psychological widening.
B. Off tracking.
C. Skidding.
D. Slipping.
Answer = Off tracking
259. A wheel base of 6.5m negotiates a 35m curve find the off tracking.
A. 0.5m.
B. 0.6m.
C. 0.62m.
D. 0.7m.
Answer = 0.6m
260. In a braking test, a vehicle was moving with a speed of 45kmph and was stopped by applying brakes, the skid marks were 10.0m in length .determine the skid resistance.
A. 0.78m.
B. 0.69m.
C. 0.71m.
D. 0.72m.
Answer = 0.78m
261. The brake efficiency in braking test is assumed as.
A. 0.95.
B. 0.96.
C. 0.99.
D. 1.0.
Answer = 1.0
262. Gross weight, axle and wheel loads of vehicle govern the.
A. Width of pavement.
B. Thickness of pavement.
C. Structural design of pavement and cross drainage structures.
D. Traffic junctions.
Answer = Structural design of pavement and cross drainage structures
263. How many types of factors affect the traffic characteristics?.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Four
264. The hearing, visibility and reaction time are covered in which type of factors?.
A. Physical.
B. Mental.
C. Psychological.
D. Environmental.
Answer = Physical
265. An intelligent driver who consumed alcohol will have a chance of.
A. Increased alertness.
B. Increase in reaction time.
C. Increase in speed.
D. Increase in judgement.
Answer = Increase in reaction time
266. The pollutant mostly released by automobiles is.
A. CO.
B. CO2.
C. O3<.
D. CH4.
Answer = CO
267. The most likely cause of accidents is.
A. Impatience in driving.
B. Slow speed of vehicle.
C. Pedestrians crossing the road.
D. Cattle crossing the road.
Answer = Impatience in driving
268. The width recommended by IRC for all type of vehicles is.
A. 1.5m.
B. 2.0m.
C. 2.5m.
D. 3.0m.
Answer = 2.5m
269. The stability of a vehicle is influenced by.
A. Width of wheel base only.
B. Width of wheel base and height of gravity.
C. Height of gravity only.
D. Length of vehicle only.
Answer = Width of wheel base and height of gravity
270. The height of the vehicle mainly influences.
A. Width of pavement.
B. Length of curve.
C. Clearance under structures.
D. Design velocity.
Answer = Clearance under structures
271. The minimum number of parameters needed to measure brake efficiency is.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Two
272. If the acceleration of the vehicle is 6.17m/sec2 then the average skid resistance is.
A. 0.61.
B. 0.62.
C. 0.63.
D. 0.64.
Answer = 0.62
273. The first stage in the traffic engineering studies is.
A. Traffic volume studies.
B. Spot speed studies.
C. Speed and delay studies.
D. Origin and destination studies.
Answer = Traffic volume studies
274. The traffic volume is usually expressed in.
A. LMV.
B. PCU.
C. LCV.
D. HCV.
Answer = PCU
275. The number of vehicles that pass through a transverse line of road at a given time in a specified direction is called.
A. Traffic studies.
B. Traffic flow.
C. Traffic origin.
D. Traffic destination.
Answer = Traffic flow
276. HCV stands for.
A. Heavy commercial vehicle.
B. Heavy cash vehicle.
C. Heavy consolidated vehicle.
D. Hard commercial vehicle.
Answer = Heavy commercial vehicle
277. The traffic flow is.
A. Static.
B. Dynamic.
C. Static and dynamic.
D. May be static or dynamic.
Answer = Dynamic
278. The first objective of the traffic volume studies is.
A. To decide priority for improvement of roads.
B. For geometric design.
C. For computing roadway capacity.
D. To plan traffic operation.
Answer = To decide priority for improvement of roads
279. Pedestrian data is used for planning.
A. Highway.
B. Sidewalks and cross-walks.
C. Kerb.
D. Camber.
Answer = Sidewalks and cross-walks
280. Which of the following method is more accurate for traffic analysis?.
A. Manual count.
B. Automatic count.
C. Average of manual and automatic.
D. Past records.
Answer = Automatic count
281. The outgoing and incoming traffic are counted at.
A. Traffic intersections.
B. Highway.
C. Urban roads.
D. Traffic symbols.
Answer = Traffic intersections
282. The traffic that is prepared based on 365 days of the year is called.
A. Yearly traffic.
B. Annual average daily traffic.
C. Average daily traffic.
D. Average yearly traffic.
Answer = Annual average daily traffic
283. The charts showing the variation of the traffic is called.
A. Traffic chart.
B. Trend chart.
C. Variation chart.
D. Traffic flow maps.
Answer = Variation chart
284. The 5 minute count at a traffic junction is 15 find the hourly count.
A. 50.0.
B. 100.0.
C. 120.0.
D. 180.0.
Answer = 180.0
285. If the traffic volume count on a road is 150 and daily factor is 1.1 and seasonal factor is 1.2 then ADT is.
A. 196.0.
B. 197.0.
C. 198.0.
D. 199.0.
Answer = 198.0
286. The ratio of seven day average for 24 hour and 24 hour count on any particular day is.
A. Daily factor.
B. Seasonal factor.
C. Annual factor.
D. Weekly factor.
Answer = Daily factor
287. The annual average daily traffic is calculated by the formula.
A. ADT*DF*WF.
B. ADT*DF*WF*SF.
C. ADT*WF.
D. ADT*SF.
Answer = ADT*DF*WF*SF
288. Running speed of a vehicle is equal to.
A. Travel speed+ delay.
B. Travel speed.
C. Travel speed-delay.
D. Average of travel speed and delay.
Answer = Travel speed-delay
289. The speed at any instant of time is called.
A. Running speed.
B. Travel speed.
C. Spot speed.
D. Space speed.
Answer = Spot speed
290. Which of the following relationship is correct?.
A. Travel speed= running speed.
B. Travel speed< running speed
C. Travel speed>running speed.
D. Travel speed=1.5 times of running speed.
Answer = Travel speed< running speed
291. Peak hour factor is expressed in percentage of.
A. ADT.
B. AADT.
C. PCU.
D. DF.
Answer = AADT
292. How many types of traffic speed studies are conducted?.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Two
293. If the distance of a vehicle moved is 25m and the observed travel time is 15 sec then the space mean speed is.
A. 4m/s.
B. 5m/s.
C. 6m/s.
D. 7m/s.
Answer = 6m/s
294. If the space mean speed of a vehicle is 50kmph, then the time mean speed will be.
A. Less than 50kmph.
B. Greater than 50kmph.
C. Equal to 50kmph.
D. Depends on the vehicle.
Answer = Greater than 50kmph
295. If the instantaneous speed of 4 vehicles are 35, 40, 45 and 50 then the time mean speed will be.
A. 40kmph.
B. 41 kmph.
C. 41.5kmph.
D. 42.5kmph.
Answer = 42.5kmph
296. The weaving manoeuvres is a type of.
A. Merging.
B. Diverging.
C. Intersection.
D. Crossing.
Answer = Crossing
297. Which of the following does not affect traffic flow?.
A. Vehicles travelling at speed.
B. Length of the vehicle.
C. Weather conditions.
D. Geometric design.
Answer = Length of the vehicle
298. The speed at which the value of time headway is lowest represents the.
A. Optimum speed.
B. Maximum speed.
C. Maximum headway.
D. Minimum headway.
Answer = Optimum speed
299. In countries like USA and UAE, which of the regulation is followed?.
A. Keep to left.
B. Keep to right.
C. Keep to middle.
D. Follow intersection.
Answer = Keep to right
300. When the gap of the vehicle changes to a smaller lane then it is called.
A. Lane change.
B. Forced lane change.
C. Simultaneous lane change.
D. Voluntary lane change.
Answer = Forced lane change
301. The vehicles per unit length at any instant of time is called as.
A. Density.
B. Jam density.
C. Maximum density.
D. Traffic flow.
Answer = Density
302. The distance between the two consecutive vehicles is called.
A. Space headway.
B. Time headway.
C. Jam density.
D. Traffic flow.
Answer = Space headway
303. The maximum jam density occurs at.
A. Zero speed.
B. 15th percentile speed.
C. 30th percentile speed.
D. 98th percentile speed.
Answer = Zero speed
304. If the space headway is 7m, then the jam density in vehicle/km is.
A. 142.0.
B. 144.0.
C. 145.0.
D. 146.0.
Answer = 142.0
305. The minimum space headway increases with.
A. Increase in length of vehicle.
B. Increase in width of vehicle.
C. Increase in weight of vehicle.
D. Increase in width of pavement.
Answer = Increase in length of vehicle
306. Which of the following equation is correct?.
A. Q=KV.
B. K=qv.
C. K=qv^2.
D. V=kq.
Answer = Q=KV
307. The maximum jam density occurs at.
A. Ki.
B. Ki/2.
C. Ki/3.
D. Ki/4.
Answer = Ki/2
308. If the jam density is 145vehicles/km, and velocity is 60kph then the capacity flow is.
A. 2175.0.
B. 2200.0.
C. 2375.0.
D. 2500.0.
Answer = 2175.0
309. The equivalency factor for car recommended by IRC is.
A. 0.5.
B. 1.0.
C. 1.5.
D. 2.0.
Answer = 1.0
310. The maximum theoretical capacity is.
A. 1000V/S.
B. 1000S/V.
C. 1000S.
D. 1000V.
Answer = 1000V/S
311. The first phase of traffic regulation is.
A. Driver controls.
B. Vehicle controls.
C. Traffic flow regulations.
D. General controls.
Answer = Driver controls
312. The various regulations imposed through the traffic control devices do not include.
A. Clear visibility.
B. Easy recognition.
C. Sufficient time for driver.
D. Traffic population.
Answer = Traffic population
313. The minimum age for attaining license for a geared vehicle is.
A. 16 years.
B. 18 years.
C. 20 years.
D. 21 years.
Answer = 18 years
314. Traffic symbols are classified into how many categories?.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Three
315. The symbol when violated which may lead to offense is.
A. Cautionary.
B. Mandatory.
C. Informatary.
D. Both informatory and cautionary.
Answer = Mandatory
316. Which of the following is disadvantage in one way traffic?.
A. Increase in average travel speed.
B. More effective coordination of signal system.
C. More stream lined movement of vehicles.
D. More chances of overtaking.
Answer = More chances of overtaking
317. The total conflict points at a junction on both two way roads is.
A. One.
B. Four.
C. five.
D. six.
Answer = six
318. The maximum number of conflict points is formed in.
A. One way regulation on one road.
B. One way regulation on two roads.
C. Two way regulation on one road.
D. Two way regulation on both roads.
Answer = Two way regulation on both roads
319. The specifications for road signs are specified by.
A. IRC 6.
B. IRC 21.
C. IRC 67.
D. IRC 97.
Answer = IRC 67
320. The diameter of the small size information board is.
A. 600mm.
B. 900mm.
C. 1200mm.
D. 1500mm.
Answer = 600mm
321. Which type of board should be installed if the speed limit is 100kmph?.
A. Small.
B. Medium.
C. Large.
D. Not required.
Answer = Large
322. Give way sign is of.
A. Triangular shape.
B. Circular shape.
C. Octagonal shape.
D. Hexagonal shape.
Answer = Triangular shape
323. STOP sign is having.
A. Octagonal shape.
B. Circular shape.
C. Triangular shape.
D. Any shape.
Answer = Octagonal shape
324. The clearance time is indicated by.
A. Red.
B. Amber.
C. Green.
D. White.
Answer = Amber
325. To reduce the conflict points which method is preferable?.
A. Restricting the entry in one side.
B. Widening of the roads.
C. Use of traffic signals.
D. Diverting the traffic.
Answer = Use of traffic signals
326. One of the disadvantages of traffic signals is.
A. Provide orderly moment at intersection.
B. The quality of the traffic flow improves.
C. Traffic handling capacity increases.
D. The rear end collision increases.
Answer = The rear end collision increases
327. The traffic signals that are installed for pedestrians are called.
A. Traffic control signals.
B. Pedestrian signals.
C. Special traffic signals.
D. Automatic signals.
Answer = Pedestrian signals
328. The clearance time for amber is usually.
A. 0.5sec.
B. 1sec.
C. 1.5sec.
D. 3sec.
Answer = 3sec
329. In trial cycle method, the average time headway is assumed as.
A. 2sec.
B. 2.5sec.
C. 3sec.
D. 3.5sec.
Answer = 2.5sec
330. The number of cycles for a trial period of 45 sec is.
A. 20.0.
B. 22.0.
C. 25.0.
D. 30.0.
Answer = 20.0
331. If the number of cycles in trial cycle method is 20, for traffic of 170 on one road and 160 on other road, then calculate the total green time in sec.
A. 38.0.
B. 39.0.
C. 40.0.
D. 41.0.
Answer = 41.0
332. In approximate method of signals, the average time taken to cross by the pedestrian is.
A. 4sec.
B. 5sec.
C. 6sec.
D. 7sec.
Answer = 7sec
333. There is a traffic flow of 250 vehicles on road A and 200 vehicles on road B, if the green signal time on road A is 15 sec, then the green signal time of road B is.
A. 10sec.
B. 11sec.
C. 12sec.
D. 13sec.
Answer = 11sec
334. If the amber time at a signal is 3 sec and the green signal time is 25sec, find the red signal time.
A. 22sec.
B. 21sec.
C. 28sec.
D. 29sec.
Answer = 28sec
335. Which of the traffic signal method is based on saturation flow?.
A. Trial cycle method.
B. Webster method.
C. IRC method.
D. Approximate method.
Answer = Webster method
336. On a 2 phase road, the saturation flow on road A is 1000 and normal flow is 250,whereas on road B the saturation flow is 1500 and normal flow is 500,the total red time is 10 sec , find optimum cycle length.
A. 35sec.
B. 36sec.
C. 37sec.
D. 38sec.
Answer = 37sec
337. Which type of traffic island can be used for reduction of conflict point?.
A. Divisional Island.
B. Channelized Island.
C. Pedestrian Loading Island.
D. Rotary Island.
Answer = Rotary Island
338. The indicators that may be marked for visible outline of the road is called.
A. Roadway indicator.
B. Roadway delineator.
C. Roadway line.
D. Roadway markings.
Answer = Roadway delineator
339. The guide posts are usually of height.
A. 0.6m.
B. 0.7m.
C. 0.8m.
D. 2.0m.
Answer = 0.8m
340. Which of the following is not an intersection at grade?.
A. Un-channelized.
B. Channelized.
C. Rotary.
D. Different level intersections.
Answer = Different level intersections
341. An intersection that is provided for different levels of road is called.
A. Intersection at grade.
B. Grade separated intersections.
C. Channelized intersection.
D. Rotary intersection.
Answer = Grade separated intersections
342. If the velocity of a vehicle is 60kmph and the other vehicle velocity is 20kmph, then the relative velocity is.
A. 80kmph.
B. 40kmph.
C. 20kmph.
D. 60kmph.
Answer = 40kmph
343. If the angle of merging is low, then the relative speed will be.
A. Low.
B. High.
C. Medium.
D. Depends on width of pavement.
Answer = Low
344. If an additional pavement is provided for lane change, then that intersection is called.
A. Tee intersection.
B. Rotary intersection.
C. Flared intersection.
D. Skewed intersection.
Answer = Flared intersection
345. Which of the following is not a requirement for intersection at grade?.
A. Area of conflict should be large.
B. Adequate visibility.
C. Avoiding sudden change of path.
D. Sufficient radius should be provided.
Answer = Area of conflict should be large
346. The most complex type of intersections for traffic operation is.
A. Un-channelized.
B. Channelized.
C. Rotary.
D. Grade separated.
Answer = Un-channelized
347. The procedure of adopting medians and traffic island in an un-channelized intersection is called.
A. Dividing.
B. Crossing.
C. Channelizing.
D. Designing.
Answer = Channelizing
348. If the coefficient of friction is 0.43, and the design velocity is 40kmph then the radius of curve is.
A. 20m.
B. 25m.
C. 28m.
D. 30m.
Answer = 30m
349. The minimum radius for rotary recommended by IRC is.
A. 1.3 times of entry radius.
B. 1.33 times of entry radius.
C. 1.5 times of entry radius.
D. 1.7 times of entry radius.
Answer = 1.33 times of entry radius
350. If the average width of the entry section is 3m and the exit is 6m then the average width is.
A. 4m.
B. 4.5m.
C. 5.0m.
D. 5.5m.
Answer = 4.5m
351. The PCU value near rotary is highest for.
A. Cars.
B. Bus.
C. Cycle.
D. Animal drawn vehicles.
Answer = Animal drawn vehicles
352. In a traffic lane the traffic moving extreme left is 250 PCU and in extreme right it is 240 PCU, the sum of the weaving traffic crossing left and right is 500 PCU, find proportion of weaving traffic.
A. 0.5.
B. 1.5.
C. 2.5.
D. 3.0.
Answer = 0.5
353. The capacity of rotary in PCU per hour for a proportion of weaving traffic 0.5 and the width of weaving section is 12m, average width of entry is 0.4m and length of the weaving section is 7.2m.
A. 1088 PCU.
B. 1100PCU.
C. 1200 PCU.
D. 1300PCU.
Answer = 1088 PCU
354. The best type of interchange can be provided with.
A. Rotary.
B. Diamond.
C. Partial cloverleaf.
D. Full cloverleaf.
Answer = Full cloverleaf
355. A grade intersection may be provided if the PCU exceeds.
A. 5000.0.
B. 6000.0.
C. 7000.0.
D. 10000.0.
Answer = 10000.0
356. The capacity of an uncontrolled intersection is.
A. 1000 to 1200 vehicles /hour.
B. 1100 to 1200vehilces/hour.
C. 1200 to 1400 vehicles/hour.
D. 1400 to 1600 vehicles/hour.
Answer = 1200 to 1400 vehicles/hour
357. The ramps in the grade separated intersections do not include.
A. Direct.
B. Semi direct.
C. Indirect.
D. Cloverleaf.
Answer = Cloverleaf
358. The product of fast moving vehicles and number of trains should exceed by how much to justify the bypass road construction?.
A. 25000.0.
B. 5000.0.
C. 50000.0.
D. 250000.0.
Answer = 25000.0
359. Parking facilities may be classified into how many types?.
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
Answer = Two
360. The type of parking in which the vehicles are parked along the kerb is called.
A. Kerb parking.
B. Off-street parking.
C. Parallel parking.
D. Angle parking.
Answer = Kerb parking
361. Which type of parking facility is convenient for all types of users?.
A. Kerb parking.
B. Off-street parking.
C. Parallel parking.
D. 90 degree parking.
Answer = 90 degree parking
362. The maximum number of cars can be parked in.
A. Kerb parking.
B. Off-street parking.
C. Parallel parking.
D. 90 degree parking.
Answer = Parallel parking
363. The number of parking spaces for a kerb of 59m and having the length of car as 5.0m is.
A. 9.0.
B. 10.0.
C. 11.0.
D. 12.0.
Answer = 10.0
364. The first stage of parking lot is.
A. Entrance.
B. Acceptance.
C. Storage.
D. Delivery.
Answer = Entrance
365. The parking facility in which elevators are required to change to a different level is called.
A. Parking lot.
B. Multi storeyed building.
C. Clover leaf junction.
D. Ramp.
Answer = Multi storeyed building
366. In 90 degree parking the length of kerb is 25m, the parking spaces are.
A. 10.0.
B. 11.0.
C. 12.0.
D. 13.0.
Answer = 10.0
367. The place allotted particularly for only parking is called.
A. Parking lot.
B. Parking space.
C. Clover space.
D. Traffic parking.
Answer = Parking lot
368. The most inconvenient method for parking is.
A. 30 degree parking.
B. 45 degree parking.
C. 90 degree parking.
D. Parallel parking.
Answer = 30 degree parking
369. The road traffic consists of how many types of traffic?.
A. Vehicle traffic.
B. Pedestrian traffic.
C. Vehicular and pedestrian traffic.
D. No traffic.
Answer = Vehicular and pedestrian traffic
370. Which of the following is not a consequence of pedestrian using roadway?.
A. Reduction in effective roadway.
B. Reduction in running speed.
C. Reduction in capacity of road.
D. Increase of zebra crossings.
Answer = Increase of zebra crossings
371. In which type of transport, walk mode is mandatory?.
A. Personal vehicles.
B. Public transport.
C. Ships.
D. Airways.
Answer = Public transport
372. The most vulnerable part of traffic is.
A. Traffic jam.
B. Vehicles.
C. Pedestrians.
D. Cattle.
Answer = Pedestrians
373. The main objective of pedestrian facility is.
A. To minimize the pedestrian conflicts.
B. To minimize the traffic conflicts.
C. To minimize the traffic on road.
D. To maximize the pedestrians on road.
Answer = To minimize the pedestrian conflicts
374. The studies that are conducted for planning the facilities of pedestrians is called.
A. Pedestrian studies.
B. Pedestrian volume studies.
C. Geometric studies.
D. Statistics.
Answer = Pedestrian volume studies
375. The width requirement of side walk depends on.
A. Pedestrian flow.
B. Traffic flow.
C. Pedestrian and traffic flow.
D. Climatic conditions.
Answer = Pedestrian flow
376. The pedestrian facilities are planned for.
A. Present requirement.
B. Estimated growth of population.
C. Past population.
D. Both present and past requirements.
Answer = Estimated growth of population
377. The minimum width of side walk is.
A. 1.0m.
B. 1.5m.
C. 1.75m.
D. 2.0m.
Answer = 1.5m
378. The width requirement of side walk is decided with the help of.
A. Pedestrians.
B. Vehicles.
C. Pedestrian flow.
D. Vehicular flow.
Answer = Pedestrian flow
379. The dead width usually considered as.
A. 0.5m.
B. 1.0m.
C. 1.5m.
D. 2.0m.
Answer = 1.0m
380. If the side walk is 1.5m, then the capacity of pedestrians in one way is.
A. 1200.0.
B. 800.0.
C. 1600.0.
D. 2400.0.
Answer = 1200.0
381. The cross slope of paved footpath may be.
A. 1 to 2%.
B. 2 to 3%.
C. 3 to 4%.
D. 4% only.
Answer = 3 to 4%
382. Which of the following is a controlled type of pedestrian crossing?.
A. Pavement marking.
B. Studs.
C. Warning signs.
D. Pedestrian signals.
Answer = Pedestrian signals
383. The approach velocity as per IRC for pedestrian crossing facilities is.
A. 60kmph.
B. 65kmph.
C. 70kmph.
D. 75kmph.
Answer = 65kmph
384. The highway accidents occur mostly at.
A. Day time.
B. Night time.
C. Both day and night.
D. Early morning hours.
Answer = Night time
385. Highway lighting is more important at.
A. Cities.
B. Towns.
C. Villages.
D. Bridges.
Answer = Bridges
386. Road lighting is a.
A. Advantage for users.
B. Disadvantage for users.
C. Economically profitable.
D. Obstruction for users.
Answer = Advantage for users
387. During the construction of highway, more highway lighting preference is given to.
A. Village.
B. Town.
C. City.
D. Intersections.
Answer = Intersections
388. If the object appears darker than the road surface it is called.
A. Discernment.
B. Partial discernment.
C. Silhouette.
D. Reverse silhouette.
Answer = Silhouette
389. Which of the pavement is better for highway lighting?.
A. Black top surface.
B. Cement concrete.
C. WBM.
D. Gravel roads.
Answer = Cement concrete
390. The objects adjacent to the pavement are seen by.
A. Silhouette.
B. Reverse silhouette.
C. Lamps.
D. Head lights.
Answer = Reverse silhouette
391. The intensity of highway lighting is measured in.
A. Lux.
B. Candela.
C. Lumen.
D. Dioptres.
Answer = Lux
392. The minimum amount of highway lighting to be provided on urban roads is.
A. 10 Lux.
B. 15 Lux.
C. 30 lux.
D. 40 Lux.
Answer = 30 lux
393. Which of the design factors considered in roadway lighting provide all the necessary features?.
A. Lamps.
B. Luminaire distribution of light.
C. Spacing of lighting.
D. Lateral placements.
Answer = Luminaire distribution of light
394. Which lamps are preferred at intersections?.
A. Sodium-vapour.
B. Mercury.
C. Filament.
D. Fluorescent.
Answer = Sodium-vapour
395. The ratio of average illumination recommended by IRC is.
A. 0.3.
B. 0.4.
C. 0.5.
D. 0.6.
Answer = 0.4
396. The clearance recommended by IRC for poles in urban roads is.
A. 0.3m.
B. 0.4m.
C. 0.5m.
D. 0.6m.
Answer = 0.6m
397. The spacing between the highway lamps is.
A. 10 to 15m.
B. 15 to 30m.
C. 30 to 45m.
D. 30 to 60m.
Answer = 30 to 60m
398. The maintenance factor of highway is assumed as.
A. 0.5.
B. 0.6.
C. 0.7.
D. 0.8.
Answer = 0.8
399. Land use, transportation and road network plans are.
A. Inter linked.
B. Intra linked.
C. Not linked.
D. Depends on the network.
Answer = Inter linked
400. The main cause of accidents in urban areas is.
A. Improper planning.
B. Extra wide roads.
C. Additional thickness of pavement.
D. Traffic congestion.
Answer = Improper planning
401. The first stage in the function of traffic engineering department is.
A. Planning and design.
B. Collection of data.
C. Investigations.
D. Finance.
Answer = Collection of data
402. Traffic forecast is not influenced by.
A. GDP.
B. Industrial output.
C. Population.
D. Weather.
Answer = Weather
403. Demographic factors do not include.
A. GDP.
B. Population in urban cities.
C. Population in rural areas.
D. Overall population.
Answer = GDP
404. The NHDP are being undertaken by private companies on basis of.
A. Profit.
B. Revenue.
C. BOT.
D. Commission basis.
Answer = BOT
405. The traffic will increase if the.
A. Price of fuel decreases.
B. Price of vehicles decreases.
C. Price of fuel decreases.
D. Price of vehicles decreases.
Answer = Price of vehicles decreases
406. The traffic population is estimated by.
A. Arithmetic method.
B. Geometric method.
C. Incremental increase method.
D. Harmonic method.
Answer = Geometric method
407. The materials not included in highway construction are.
A. Stone.
B. Dust.
C. Soil.
D. Petrol.
Answer = Petrol
408. For places where there is a passage of flood water then the highway has to be built on.
A. Embankment.
B. Subway.
C. Overpass.
D. Underpass.
Answer = Embankment
409. The layer which is constructed above embankment is called.
A. Sub grade.
B. Fill.
C. Base.
D. Sub base.
Answer = Sub grade
410. The highest CBR number is required for.
A. Pavement.
B. Sub grade.
C. Sub base.
D. Base.
Answer = Sub grade
411. The most common waste material used in construction is.
A. Fly ash.
B. Slag.
C. Pozzolona.
D. Rice husk.
Answer = Fly ash
412. Bitumen is a by-product of.
A. Wood.
B. Petroleum.
C. Kerosene.
D. Coal.
Answer = Petroleum
413. Tar is a by-product of.
A. Wood.
B. Petroleum.
C. Kerosene.
D. Coal.
Answer = Wood
414. In the initial stage of construction which type of pavement is cheap?.
A. Flexible.
B. Rigid.
C. Composite.
D. WBM.
Answer = Flexible
415. A good soil should have.
A. Ease of compaction.
B. Temporary strength.
C. High sensitivity.
D. High void ratio.
Answer = Ease of compaction
416. The process by which the water voids are removed is called.
A. Compaction.
B. Consolidation.
C. Permeability.
D. Shear strength.
Answer = Consolidation
417. The most common method used for the removal of voids in soil is.
A. Compaction.
B. Consolidation.
C. Permeability.
D. Shear strength.
Answer = Compaction
418. The volume of voids in the 3 phase diagram of soil is.
A. Volume of air.
B. Volume of water.
C. Volume of air and volume of water.
D. Volume of solids.
Answer = Volume of air and volume of water
419. The ratio of volume of voids and volume of soil solids is called.
A. Void ratio.
B. Porosity.
C. Saturation.
D. Air content.
Answer = Void ratio
420. Montimorrite is a type of mineral which causes expansive behaviour is found in.
A. Black cotton soil.
B. Laterite soil.
C. River soil.
D. Glacial soil.
Answer = Black cotton soil
421. The soil that is formed by the action of wind is called.
A. Lacustrine soil.
B. Alluvial soil.
C. Aeolian soil.
D. Glacial soil.
Answer = Aeolian soil
422. The maximum density which is desirable in highway embankments is.
A. Dry density.
B. Saturated density.
C. M.D.D.
D. O.M.C.
Answer = M.D.D
423. The void ratio can never be.
A. Less than 1.
B. Greater than 1.
C. Less than zero.
D. Equal to 1.
Answer = Less than zero
424. The theoretical void ratio of sand is taken as.
A. 0.87.
B. 0.91.
C. 1.01.
D. 1.03.
Answer = 0.91
425. If the water content of a soil sample is 25%, and dry density is 15KN/m3 then its dry density in KN/m3 is.
A. 18.75.
B. 19.0.
C. 20.0.
D. 21.0.
Answer = 18.75
426. If the permeability is high then its void ratio is.
A. High.
B. Low.
C. Medium.
D. Depends on soil.
Answer = High
427. The property of soil by which its state and size changes is called.
A. Activity.
B. Sensitivity.
C. Thixotropy.
D. Shear strength.
Answer = Thixotropy
428. The specific gravity of sand is.
A. 2.5.
B. 2.6.
C. 2.7.
D. 2.9.
Answer = 2.7
429. In field, the dry density of soil can be determined by?.
A. Oven method.
B. Sand bath.
C. Burning.
D. Sand replacement.
Answer = Burning
430. Which type of roller is most suitable for soil compaction?.
A. Smooth roller.
B. Sheep foot roller.
C. Pneumatic roller.
D. Hydraulic roller.
Answer = Sheep foot roller
431. The unpaved shoulder usually consists of.
A. Gravel.
B. Sand.
C. Bricks.
D. Clay.
Answer = Gravel
432. The specific gravity of sand is determined by?.
A. Pyconometer.
B. Density bottle.
C. Hydrometer.
D. Oven.
Answer = Density bottle
433. The liquid limit of the soil is determined by.
A. Hydrometer.
B. Pyconometer.
C. Sand bottle.
D. Cassagrandes apparatus.
Answer = Cassagrandes apparatus
434. The shear strength is more for.
A. Cohesive soil.
B. Non cohesive soil.
C. Frictionless soil.
D. Dust.
Answer = Cohesive soil
435. The weight of the hammer in modified proctor test apparatus is.
A. 2.8kg.
B. 4.7kg.
C. 5.0kg.
D. 6.0kg.
Answer = 4.7kg
436. Coefficient of permeability is more for.
A. Gravel.
B. Sand.
C. Clay.
D. Brick.
Answer = Gravel
437. Which type of soil is suitable for construction of pavement?.
A. Black cotton soil.
B. Sand.
C. Stone dust.
D. Gravel.
Answer = Gravel
438. The slope of curve obtained between the number of blows and water content in the cassagrande's method is.
A. Toughness index.
B. Activity.
C. Flow index.
D. Liquid limit.
Answer = Flow index
439. If the sensitivity of the soil is greater than 16 then it is.
A. Insensitive.
B. Little sensitive.
C. Highly sensitive.
D. Quick.
Answer = Quick
440. Gravel having well grading is denoted by.
A. GW.
B. GP.
C. SM.
D. SW.
Answer = GW
441. The fine grain soils are classified according to.
A. Atterbergs limits.
B. Atterbergs charts.
C. USCS.
D. ISCS.
Answer = Atterbergs limits
442. If the load value at 2.5mm penetration in CBR is 190kg and the load for 5.0mm penetration is 48kg, then the CBR value at 5 mm penetration is.
A. 4.6.
B. 4.4.
C. 4.3.
D. 4.1.
Answer = 4.4
443. The plate bearing test is used to evaluate.
A. Modulus of sub grade reaction.
B. Modulus of sub base reaction.
C. Modulus of base reaction.
D. Modulus of pavement.
Answer = Modulus of sub grade reaction
444. If the shear strength of the non-cohesive soil is 84KN/m2 and angle of friction is 30 degrees, then the normal strength in KN/m2 is.
A. 140.0.
B. 141.0.
C. 143.0.
D. 145.0.
Answer = 145.0
445. Stone aggregate do not have to resist.
A. Weathering effect.
B. Traffic load.
C. Wheel load stress.
D. Soil load.
Answer = Soil load
446. Sand obtained from river is used as.
A. Course aggregate.
B. Fine aggregate.
C. Filling materials.
D. Substitute.
Answer = Fine aggregate
447. Soft aggregates are used in.
A. Lower layers.
B. Upper layers.
C. Everywhere in the pavement.
D. Depends on the material.
Answer = Lower layers
448. Which of the following is a soft aggregate?.
A. Brick.
B. Gravel.
C. Clay.
D. Silt.
Answer = Brick
449. Impact value is used to measure.
A. Hardness.
B. Toughness.
C. Wheel load.
D. Strength.
Answer = Toughness
450. The capability of aggregate to resist more weathering action and wheel load is called.
A. Hardness.
B. Toughness.
C. Durability.
D. Angularity.
Answer = Durability
451. If the aggregates are exceptionally strong then they are having impact value.
A. Less than 10.
B. Less than 15.
C. Less than 30.
D. Greater than 30.
Answer = Less than 10
452. The skid number for highways should not be less than.
A. 55.0.
B. 45.0.
C. 35.0.
D. 25.0.
Answer = 55.0
453. The specific gravity for aggregates should be within the range of.
A. 2.5-2.8.
B. 2.6-2.9.
C. 2.4-2.6.
D. 2.2-2.6.
Answer = 2.6-2.9
454. The crushing value of the aggregate determines its.
A. Hardness.
B. Strength.
C. Toughness.
D. Durability.
Answer = Strength
455. The flakiness index for surface dressing should not exceed.
A. 0.15.
B. 0.25.
C. 0.35.
D. 0.45.
Answer = 0.25
456. The sum of flakiness index and elongation index should not exceed.
A. 15.0.
B. 20.0.
C. 30.0.
D. 40.0.
Answer = 30.0
457. Aggregates obtained from which type of rocks are strong?.
A. Igneous.
B. Sedimentary.
C. Metamorphic.
D. Rocks formed by weathering.
Answer = Igneous
458. The maximum size that can be used in plain concrete is.
A. 40 mm.
B. 20 mm.
C. 100 mm.
D. 80 mm.
Answer = 80 mm
459. The maximum size of aggregate that can be used in R.C.C is.
A. 10mm.
B. 15mm.
C. 20mm.
D. 25mm.
Answer = 20mm
460. The flaky aggregates should not exceed.
A. 1/2 of mean dimension.
B. 3/4th of mean dimension.
C. 3/5th of mean dimension.
D. 1/8th of mean dimension.
Answer = 3/5th of mean dimension
461. The factors which effect the formation of metamorphic rocks are.
A. Heat.
B. Pressure.
C. Heat and pressure.
D. Molten lava.
Answer = Heat and pressure
462. The fine aggregates are having a size less than.
A. 5mm.
B. 4.75mm.
C. 2.36 mm.
D. 75 microns.
Answer = 4.75mm
463. Which type of aggregates gives good workability?.
A. Round.
B. Flaky.
C. Angular.
D. Irregular.
Answer = Round
464. If the bulk density of an aggregate is 2.6kg/lit and Gs is 2.8 then, the percentage of voids is.
A. 7.1.
B. 71.0.
C. 710.0.
D. 0.71.
Answer = 7.1
465. The dividing and operating of aggregates into different sizes is called.
A. Sieve analysis.
B. Gap grading.
C. Impact.
D. Hardness.
Answer = Sieve analysis
466. The expansion of aggregate on reaction with water is called.
A. Swelling.
B. Bulking.
C. Expelling.
D. Breaking.
Answer = Bulking
467. Which material can be replaced in concrete for a strong pervious concrete pavement?.
A. Water.
B. Course aggregate.
C. Fine aggregate.
D. Cement.
Answer = Course aggregate
468. The minimum grade of concrete required for pavement design is.
A. M30.
B. M35.
C. M40.
D. M45.
Answer = M40
469. The aggregates which do not have sufficient strength like waste bricks can be used in.
A. Base.
B. Shoulder.
C. Surface.
D. Footpath.
Answer = Footpath
470. Bitumen is obtained from.
A. Wood.
B. Petroleum.
C. Coal.
D. Kerosene.
Answer = Petroleum
471. Tar is obtained from.
A. Wood.
B. Petroleum.
C. Coal.
D. Kerosene.
Answer = Wood
472. Tar is not used now because of.
A. Cost.
B. Efficiency.
C. Harmful effects.
D. Not satisfactory.
Answer = Harmful effects
473. Bitumen is.
A. Pyrogenous.
B. Natural.
C. Either natural or pyrogenous.
D. Artificial.
Answer = Either natural or pyrogenous
474. The bitumen is completely soluble in.
A. Carbon monoxide.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Carbon sulfide.
D. Carbon disulfide.
Answer = Carbon sulfide
475. The resistance to flow is measured by.
A. Flash and fire.
B. Viscosity.
C. Penetration test.
D. Ductility test.
Answer = Viscosity
476. The temperature used in highway pavement in degrees centigrade is.
A. 130.0.
B. 120.0.
C. 115.0.
D. 175.0.
Answer = 175.0
477. The solvent used in cut back bitumen is.
A. Kerosene.
B. Oil.
C. Petrol.
D. Diesel.
Answer = Kerosene
478. The bitumen surface becomes stiff in.
A. Summer.
B. Winter.
C. Rainy.
D. Spring.
Answer = Winter
479. Which bitumen does not need heating?.
A. Paving grade.
B. Cut back.
C. Modified.
D. Bitumen emulsion.
Answer = Cut back
480. The distance between two samples in penetration test should be.
A. 10mm.
B. 15mm.
C. 20mm.
D. 25mm.
Answer = 10mm
481. Which of the following grade of bitumen is harder?.
A. 30/40.
B. 60/70.
C. 80/100.
D. All are equal.
Answer = 30/40
482. The temperature in penetration test is.
A. 25.0.
B. 30.0.
C. 27.0.
D. 35.0.
Answer = 25.0
483. The SI unit of viscosity is.
A. Stoke.
B. Pascal.
C. Pascal second.
D. Dynes.
Answer = Pascal second
484. The softening point of bitumen in the given options (in degree Celsius) will be.
A. 25.0.
B. 30.0.
C. 35.0.
D. 80.0.
Answer = 35.0
485. Which layer of pavement should withstand stress?.
A. Surface.
B. Sub grade.
C. Sub base.
D. Base.
Answer = Surface
486. The surface of bitumen should be.
A. Smooth.
B. Rough.
C. Sufficient enough to resist friction.
D. Very smooth.
Answer = Sufficient enough to resist friction
487. The DBM is used in.
A. Local streets.
B. Rural roads.
C. Highway.
D. Concrete bridges.
Answer = Highway
488. The filler material should pass from.
A. 0.075mm.
B. 0.75mm.
C. 7.5mm.
D. 75mm.
Answer = 0.075mm
489. Rutting may be avoided by.
A. Good compaction.
B. Good aggregate.
C. Good filler.
D. Good workmanship.
Answer = Good aggregate
490. Bleeding may be avoided by.
A. Water voids.
B. Air voids.
C. Porosity.
D. Water content.
Answer = Air voids
491. Which aggregate produce higher stability of mix?.
A. Gravel.
B. Sharp sand.
C. Rounded sand.
D. Fly ash.
Answer = Sharp sand
492. Maximum size of aggregate in base course is.
A. 25 mm.
B. 50 mm.
C. 40 mm.
D. 30 mm.
Answer = 50 mm
493. Maximum size of aggregate in surface course is.
A. 18.5mm.
B. 19.5mm.
C. 20.5mm.
D. 21.5mm.
Answer = 18.5mm
494. The specific gravity of bitumen lies between.
A. 0.8& 0.9.
B. 0.95& 0.97.
C. 0.97&1.02.
D. 1.02&1.05.
Answer = 0.97&1.02
495. Volume of mineral aggregate is.
A. VV+VB.
B. Vv-Vb.
C. VV*Vb.
D. VV/VB.
Answer = VV+VB
496. The temperature in Marshall's method is.
A. 25.0.
B. 30.0.
C. 35.0.
D. 60.0.
Answer = 60.0
497. Marshall stability determines.
A. Ductility.
B. Flexibility.
C. Utility.
D. Grade of bitumen.
Answer = Flexibility
498. The number of blows in Marshalls test specimen is.
A. 25.0.
B. 30.0.
C. 55.0.
D. 75.0.
Answer = 75.0
499. The minimum grade of concrete in CC pavement is.
A. M20.
B. M30.
C. M40.
D. M50.
Answer = M40