600+ Surveying MCQs - Civil Engineering

 

1.  The method of deflection distances is used in which of the following cases?. 

A. Road surveys. 

B. Railway survey. 

C. Land survey. 

D. Town planning survey. 

Answer = Road surveys

2.  The method of producing offsets from the chords can also be named as____________. 

A. Rankine's method. 

B. Bisection of chords. 

C. Deflection distances. 

D. Two-theodolite method. 

Answer = Deflection distances

3.  Which of the following indicates the formula used in deflection distances?. 

A. On = Cn  + (Cn-1 + Cn)/2*R. 

B. On = Cn (Cn-1 + Cn)/2+R. 

C. On = Cn (Cn-1 – Cn)/2*R. 

D. On = Cn (Cn-1 + Cn)/2*R. 

Answer = On = Cn (Cn-1 + Cn)/2*R

4.  Which of the following process can be adopted as an alternative of theodolite?. 

A. Bisection of chords. 

B. Deflection distances. 

C. Ordinates by long chords. 

D. Rankine's method. 

Answer = Deflection distances

5.  Errors in deflection distances method are distributed to all the points.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

6.  Closing error can also be known as__________. 

A. Absolute error. 

B. Zero error. 

C. Subjecting error. 

D. Discrepancy. 

Answer = Discrepancy

7.  While producing offsets by deflection distances method, the last offset must coincide with the beginning.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

8.  Determine the first offset if the chord length is given as 23.98m and the radius is given as 5.87m.. 

A. 84.98 m. 

B. 48.98 m. 

C. 48.89 m. 

D. 84.89 m. 

Answer = 48.98 m

9.  Find the value of last offset, if the lengths of first and second chords are given as 45.87m and 62.87m with radius of curve 69.76m and length of chain being 30m.. 

A. 38.987 m. 

B. 83.987 m. 

C. 38.697 m. 

D. 83.697 m. 

Answer = 83.697 m

10.  Find the value of chord length if the offset is given as 36.54m and the radius include 3.43m.. 

A. 15.38 m. 

B. 51.83 m. 

C. 15.83 m. 

D. 87.54 m. 

Answer = 15.83 m

11.  A curve which is having a varying radius is called_____________. 

A. Simple curve. 

B. Compound curve. 

C. Transition curve. 

D. Reverse curve. 

Answer = Transition curve

12.  In order to prevent the case of overturning, which of the following is provided?. 

A. Super elevation. 

B. Reverse curve. 

C. Simple curve. 

D. Compound curve. 

Answer = Super elevation

13.  The provision of equilibrium cant can be seen in case of__________. 

A. Curves. 

B. Mountains. 

C. Highways. 

D. Railways. 

Answer = Railways

14.  Side friction factor is used in which of the following cases?. 

A. Reverse curve. 

B. Transition curve. 

C. Simple curve. 

D. Compound curve. 

Answer = Transition curve

15.  With increase in super elevation there must be subsequent increase in centrifugal force for balancing it.. 

A. TRUE. 

B.  False. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

16.  Length of transition curve can be given as__________. 

A. L = r tan(δ/2). 

B. L = ne. 

C. L = n – e. 

D. L = n + e. 

Answer = L = ne

17.  Which of the following methods doesn't describe the method of finding length of transition curve?. 

A. Arbitrary gradient. 

B. Time rate. 

C. Bisection of arcs. 

D. Rate of Change of radial acceleration. 

Answer = Bisection of arcs

18.  Among the methods available for determining the length of the curve, which is commonly used?. 

A. Bisection of arcs. 

B. Time rate. 

C. Arbitrary method. 

D. Rate of change of radial acceleration. 

Answer = Rate of change of radial acceleration

19.  Clothoid is also known as___________. 

A. Glover's spiral. 

B. Froude's equation. 

C. Cartesian curve. 

D. Cubic spiral. 

Answer = Glover's spiral

20.  Froude's transition is also known as___________. 

A. Clothoid. 

B. Cubic parabola. 

C. Cubic spiral. 

D. Glover's spiral. 

Answer = Cubic parabola

21.  Determine the super elevation, if the width of the road can be given as 2.96m, radius of curve as 62.96m, vehicle speed = 56m/s.. 

A. 51.303m. 

B. 51.03m. 

C. 15.03m. 

D. 15.3m. 

Answer = 15.03m

22.  If the super elevation for a road is given as 24m, find the length of transition curve.. 

A. 15.6 km. 

B. 15.6 m. 

C. 15.6 cm. 

D. 15.6 mm. 

Answer = 15.6 km

23.  Using intrinsic equation, find the value of the length of curve between two points of a 45m transition curve having radius 24.76m with an inclination of 8˚43ꞌ.. 

A. 319.37m. 

B. 913.37m. 

C. 139.73m. 

D. 139.37m. 

Answer = 139.37m

24. If the radius of curvature of a curve being 45.42m with an inclination of 7˚52ꞌ. The value of s and L corresponds to 2 and 56m respectively, find the total tangent length of a transition curve.. 

A. 03.02m. 

B. 30.02m. 

C. 2.3m. 

D. 3.2m. 

Answer = 30.02m

25. In a cubic parabola, if the value of x co-ordinate is 7, radius of the curve is given as 42.69m and the length of the curve as 24m. Find the y co-ordinate.. 

A. 2.76. 

B. 1.05. 

C. 0.05. 

D. 5.0. 

Answer = 0.05

26.  Which among the following indicates the correct necessity of classification of the triangulation system?. 

A. For measuring in any way. 

B. For accuracy in measurement. 

C. For covering the entire field. 

D. For reducing the work process. 

Answer = For accuracy in measurement

27.  Among the classification of triangulation system, which posses the highest order?. 

A. Primary. 

B. Secondary. 

C. Tertiary. 

D. Quaternary. 

Answer = Primary

28.  In which of the following areas, the usage of primary triangulation is done?. 

A. Measuring fields. 

B. Measuring built up lands. 

C. Measuring earths figure. 

D. Measuring unused lands. 

Answer = Measuring earths figure

29.  Length of base line in primary triangulation is given as____________. 

A. 1.5 – 5 km. 

B. 0.5 – 10 km. 

C. 0.5 – 3 km. 

D. 5 – 15 km. 

Answer = 5 – 15 km

30.  When compared to primary triangulation, secondary triangulation is having smaller triangles.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

31.  Among the classification of triangulation, which will give the precise value?. 

A. Quaternary. 

B. Tertiary. 

C. Secondary. 

D. Primary. 

Answer = Primary

32.  Which classification involves the formation of more number of triangles?. 

A. Primary. 

B. Secondary. 

C. Tertiary. 

D. Quaternary. 

Answer = Tertiary

33.  Which triangulation system has the least probability of occurring errors?. 

A. Primary. 

B. Secondary. 

C. Quaternary. 

D. Tertiary. 

Answer = Primary

34.  Which triangulation system is will not give more accurate results?. 

A. Quadrilateral. 

B. Single chain. 

C. Double chain. 

D. Central point. 

Answer = Single chain

35.  Covering whole survey area with primary triangulation but filling the gaps with secondary and tertiary triangulation involves in which among the following processes?. 

A. Central system. 

B. Quaternary triangulation. 

C. Grid iron system. 

D. Well conditioned system. 

Answer = Grid iron system

36.  Which of the following is the most important process in the triangulation system?. 

A. Towers. 

B. Signals. 

C. Base line measurement. 

D. Reconnaissance. 

Answer = Base line measurement

37.  The length of the tenth base is__________. 

A. 1.7 miles. 

B. 2.7 miles. 

C. 4.7 miles. 

D. 6.7 miles. 

Answer = 1.7 miles

38.  Ground which is having undulations is taken into consideration while setting base line.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

39.  Which of the following is not a form of base measuring apparatus?. 

A. Flexible apparatus. 

B. Rigid bars. 

C. Spiral apparatus. 

D. Colby apparatus. 

Answer = Spiral apparatus

40.  Corrections can be applied without measuring the temperature in field.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

41.  Colby apparatus will come under which of the following forms?. 

A. Optical apparatus. 

B. Flexible apparatus. 

C. Rigid bars. 

D. Jaderin's apparatus. 

Answer = Rigid bars

42.  Which of the following indicates a flexible apparatus?. 

A. Copper tape. 

B. Steel tape. 

C. Chain. 

D. Iron tape. 

Answer = Steel tape

43.  Which of the following methods is having more amount of flexibility?. 

A. Flexible apparatus. 

B. Rigid bars. 

C. Colby apparatus. 

D. Jaderin's method. 

Answer = Jaderin's method

44.  The formula for correction for temperature is ___________. 

A. C = α (Tm – T0) L. 

B. C = α (Tm – T0) + L. 

C. C = α (Tm + T0) L. 

D. C = α (Tm – T0) / L. 

Answer = C = α (Tm – T0) L

45.  What will be the correction for absolute length of the length of the line is 20m, correction is 2m and length of the tape is 30m?. 

A. 1.43. 

B. 1.34. 

C. 31.42. 

D. 2.65. 

Answer = 1.34

46.  Determine the correction for the temperature, if the mean temperature is 30˚C and the temperature during standardization of tape is about 28˚C with length of the line 9m.. 

A. 8*10-6. 

B. 81*10-6. 

C. 18*10-6. 

D. 18*106. 

Answer = 18*10-6

47.  Apply correction for tension, if the pull applied during measurement is 15N and standard pull is about 8N. Measured length is about 10m, cross-section of the tape is 5 sq. cm with E 2*107 N/sq. cm.. 

A. 7*107. 

B. 6*107. 

C. 7*1010. 

D. 7*102. 

Answer = 7*107

48.  If the weight of the tape is 1kg having length 100m with 6 equal bays. The pull applied will be 9N, calculate the correction for sag.. 

A. 0.01042. 

B. 0.0142. 

C. 0.142. 

D. 0.00142. 

Answer = 0.00142

49. Calculate the correction for misalignment, if the length of the line is 18m with perpendicular of 3m.. 

A. 0.52. 

B. 0.25. 

C. 2.05. 

D. 5.02. 

Answer = 0.25

50. What will be the correction for slope, if the length of the line is given as 20m with slope of 5˚46ꞌ?. 

A. 1.101. 

B. 0.011. 

C. 0.101. 

D. 1.001. 

Answer = 0.101

51.  A structure erected over a station can be determined as___________. 

A. Signal. 

B. Tower. 

C. Instrument station. 

D. Satellite station. 

Answer = Tower

52.  The amount of elevation depends on which of the following characteristics?. 

A. Instrument used. 

B. Gradient. 

C. Slope level. 

D. Characteristics of terrain. 

Answer = Characteristics of terrain

53.  Which type of structure (tower) can be used for small heights?. 

A. Masonry structure. 

B. Wooden structure. 

C. Steel structure. 

D. Timber structure. 

Answer = Masonry structure

54.  What is the height of a Bilby tower?. 

A. 10 m. 

B. 20 m. 

C. 30 m. 

D. 50 m. 

Answer = 30 m

55.  Which of the following determines the exact position of the observed station?. 

A. Signal. 

B. Tower. 

C. Theodolite. 

D. Chain. 

Answer = Signal

56.  Which of the following is not a classification of signal?. 

A. Sun signal. 

B. Night signal. 

C. Daylight signal. 

D. Polarised signal. 

Answer = Polarised signal

57.  A signal must contain phase.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

58.  Opaque signal is having a range of ___________. 

A. 50 km. 

B. 40 km. 

C. 30 km. 

D. 80 km. 

Answer = 30 km

59.  In which of the following cases, a pole signal is used?. 

A. Non-Luminous signal. 

B. Luminous signal. 

C. Night signal. 

D. Polarised signal. 

Answer = Non-Luminous signal

60.  Which among the following indicates the instrument used in Sun signals?. 

A. Polarised signal. 

B. Night signal. 

C. Non – Luminous signal. 

D. Luminous signal. 

Answer = Luminous signal

61.  What will be the face correction made on bright line, if the radius of the signal is given as 24m, angle with which the station points make with the sun is given as 24˚12ꞌ and the distance between the station points is given as 85m?. 

A. 953˚11ꞌ. 

B. 59˚11ꞌ. 

C. 359˚11ꞌ. 

D. 593˚11ꞌ. 

Answer = 593˚11ꞌ

62.  In the process of reconnaissance, map reference is taken.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

63.  Which of the following is not necessary for Reconnaissance process?. 

A. Sextant. 

B. Theodolite. 

C. Chain. 

D. Aneroid Barometer. 

Answer = Chain

64.  Height of the instrument depends upon __________. 

A. Elevation differences. 

B. Type of terrain present. 

C. Type of instrument used. 

D. Distance between stations. 

Answer = Distance between stations

65.  Height of the station above datum is given as __________. 

A. h=D2(1−2m)2R

B. h=D2(1−2m)2

C. h=D2(1+2m)2R

D. h=D(1−2m)2R

Answer = h=D2(1−2m)2R 

66.  In the process of Reconnaissance, which of the following is determined?. 

A. Slope. 

B. Elevation. 

C. Gradient. 

D. Distance between stations. 

Answer = Elevation

67.  Reconnaissance process will give best output only on elevated grounds.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

68.  While calculating h2 with reference to h1, line of sight must be ______ m above the point of tangency.. 

A. 5-6 m. 

B. 4-5 m. 

C. 3-4 m. 

D. 2-3 m. 

Answer = 2-3 m

69.  For proper identification, station marks are marked with___________. 

A. Wood. 

B. Plastic. 

C. Copper. 

D. Concrete. 

Answer = Copper

70.  Besides theodolite which among the following is used for taking angles.. 

A. Compass. 

B. Only theodolite. 

C. Total station. 

D. Sextant. 

Answer = Sextant

71.  Determine the height of the station if the distance between the visible horizon is 44km.. 

A. 121.54m. 

B. 211.54m. 

C. 121.45m. 

D. 211.45m. 

Answer = 121.54m

72.  Find the distance between the visible horizon, if the height of the station is given as 2.98m.. 

A. 8.66m. 

B. 6.88m. 

C. 8.68m. 

D. 2.86m. 

Answer = 6.88m

73.  Which of the following can describe the main purpose of the satellite station?. 

A. Act as false station. 

B. Act as true station. 

C. Measuring length. 

D. Measuring diameter. 

Answer = Act as false station

74.  The recordings taken from eccentric station are more precise.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

75.  Which of the following indicates the formula of phase correction?. 

A. β = 206265 + d * sin (γ) / a. 

B. β = 206265 * d – sin (γ) / a. 

C. β = 20265 * d * sin (γ) / a. 

D. β = 206265 * d * sin (γ) / a. 

Answer = β = 206265 * d * sin (γ) / a

76.  Which of the following method can be adopted if there is any object in the point of instrument station?. 

A. Centric station. 

B. True station. 

C. Satellite station. 

D. Controlled station. 

Answer = Satellite station

77.  Determine the true angle, if the station is placed at the second point having angles θ, α and β as 20˚45ꞌ, 2˚31ꞌ and 7˚12ꞌ.. 

A. 52˚26ꞌ. 

B. 25˚62ꞌ. 

C. 25˚26ꞌ. 

D. 26˚25ꞌ. 

Answer = 25˚26ꞌ

78.  Determine the eccentric station point if the station is 1.65m to the west and the distance between remaining two station points is given as 300m, with an angle of 10˚12ꞌ.. 

A. 200˚35ꞌ. 

B. 2˚53ꞌ. 

C. 202˚53ꞌ. 

D. 200˚53ꞌ. 

Answer = 200˚53ꞌ

79.  Determine the corrected direction of the eccentric station if the value of D is given as 200m with a reflection of 9˚15ꞌ having a distance of 1.2m from the main station.. 

A. 198˚45ꞌ. 

B. 198˚56ꞌ. 

C. 189˚56ꞌ. 

D. 918˚56ꞌ. 

Answer = 198˚56ꞌ

80.  Calculate the corrected angle if the values of θ, β1  and β2 are given as 50˚46ꞌ, 12˚24ꞌ and 13˚36ꞌ.. 

A. 94˚34ꞌ. 

B. 49˚43ꞌ. 

C. 4˚34ꞌ. 

D. 49˚34ꞌ. 

Answer = 49˚34ꞌ

81.  Satellite station is also known as__________. 

A. Centric station. 

B. True station. 

C. Eccentric station. 

D. Instrument station. 

Answer = Eccentric station

82.  The laws of accidental errors follow which of the following principle?. 

A. Normal equation. 

B. Probability law. 

C. Laws of weight. 

D. Most probable value. 

Answer = Probability law

83.  Which of the following does not indicate the feature in laws of accidental errors?. 

A. Negligible errors. 

B. Small errors. 

C. Large errors. 

D. Positive errors. 

Answer = Negligible errors

84.  Most probable value is equal to which of the following?. 

A. Differentiation. 

B. Summation. 

C. Arithmetic mean. 

D. Normal equation. 

Answer = Arithmetic mean

85.  The value of mean square error can be given as__________. 

A. (∑v2+n)1/2. 

B. (∑v2*n)1/2. 

C. (∑v/n)1/2. 

D. (∑v2/n)1/2. 

Answer = (∑v2/n)1/2

86.  Probability curve describes about_______________. 

A. Normal equation. 

B. Frequency of errors. 

C. Probability curve. 

D. Probability equation. 

Answer = Frequency of errors

87.  Determine the probable error in a single measurement if the summation of the difference between mean and single observation is given as 8.76 in a series of 7 observations.. 

A. 0.98. 

B. 0.93. 

C. 9.08. 

D. 0.89. 

Answer = 0.98

88.  Determine the probable error of measurements by using the different probable errors, which are given as 5.64, 2.98, 0.98 and 2.54.. 

A. 3.96. 

B. 9.63. 

C. 6.93. 

D. 9.36. 

Answer = 6.93

89.  What will be the mean square error, if the readings were given as 2.654, 2.987, 2,432 and 2.543.. 

A. 3.305. 

B. 0.335. 

C. 0.305. 

D. 30.35. 

Answer = 0.335

90.  If the value of error due to the single measurement is 6.54 for 10 observations, then calculate the value of average probable error.. 

A. 2.086. 

B. 2.608. 

C. 0.268. 

D. 2.068. 

Answer = 2.068

91.  Find the number of observations if the mean square error and the summation of the difference between the individual and the mean series are given as 0.987 and 3.654.. 

A. 14.0. 

B. 12.0. 

C. 10.0. 

D. 9.0. 

Answer = 14.0

92.  The principle of least squares can be formed from___________. 

A. Probability equation. 

B. Normal equation. 

C. Celestial equation. 

D. Observed equation. 

Answer = Probability equation

93.  In the principle of least squares, residual error will be__________. 

A. Maximum. 

B. Minimum. 

C. Negligible. 

D. Nor error occurs. 

Answer = Minimum

94.  Which of the following indicates the formula of arithmetic mean?. 

A. ∑V * n. 

B. ∑V – n. 

C. ∑V + n. 

D. ∑V / n. 

Answer = ∑V / n

95.  If the value of number of observations is large and e is small then ∑e / n will be equal to__________. 

A. Frequency. 

B. True value. 

C. Arithmetic mean. 

D. Probable value. 

Answer = Arithmetic mean

96.  Which of the following indicates the fundamental of least squares?. 

A. arithmetic mean should be maximized. 

B. arithmetic mean should be zero. 

C. arithmetic mean should be neutralized. 

D. arithmetic mean should be minimized. 

Answer = arithmetic mean should be minimized

97.  Which of the following value must always be positive in the principle of least squares?. 

A. (N-(∑V/n))2. 

B. (N*(∑V/n))2. 

C. (N+(∑V/n))2. 

D. (N-(∑V/n))0. 

Answer = (N-(∑V/n))2

98.  In the process of least squares, sum of residuals must be equal to zero.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

99.  When number of observations is large, the arithmetic mean will be equal to true value.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

100.  Determine the arithmetic mean if the summation of the difference between individual and mean of the observations is given as 1.54 for 10 observations.. 

A. 0.154. 

B. 0.514. 

C. 0.145. 

D. 1.405. 

Answer = 0.154

101.  Find the value of N if the sums of squares of two individual residuals are given as 24.98 and 13.76 respectively. The summation of the difference between individual and the mean of the readings is 3.32 for 8 observations.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 1.6. 

C. 1.7. 

D. 2.0. 

Answer = 1.6

102.  Which of the following can be used for finding a normal equation?. 

A. Unknown values. 

B. Algebraic coefficients. 

C. Probability law. 

D. Probability curve. 

Answer = Algebraic coefficients

103.  Normal equation is used in case of________________. 

A. Probability equation. 

B. Arithmetic method. 

C. Indirect method. 

D. Direct method. 

Answer = Direct method

104.  Which of the following processes is a tedious one?. 

A. Probability law. 

B. Normal equation. 

C. Probability equation. 

D. Most probable value. 

Answer = Normal equation

105.  Determine the normal equation for x for the equations, 5x+2y+3z-6 =0 and 2x+4y+6z-10 = 0, having equal weight.. 

A. 29x+18y+27z-50 =0. 

B. 18x+29y+27z-50 =0. 

C. 27x+18y+29z-50 =0. 

D. 29x+81y+27z-50 =0. 

Answer = 29x+18y+27z-50 =0

106.  If different weights of the equations are involved then they are to be subtracted with the coefficients.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

107.  Formation of normal equation with unknown quantities must be multiplied with the algebraic coefficient.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

108.  Find the normal equation for y of the equations 2x+3y+4z-7 = 0, x-4y+6z-9 = 0, having weights 3 and 2 respectively.. 

A. 48x-32y+8z-72 = 0. 

B. 32x-8y+48z-72 = 0. 

C. 8x-32y+48z-72 = 0. 

D. 8x-48y+32z-72 = 0. 

Answer = 8x-32y+48z-72 = 0

109.  What will be the normal equation for z if the equations are given as 3x+9y+4z-43=0, 2x+6y+z-5=0. Assume these are having equal weights.. 

A. 17x+42y+47z-178=0. 

B. 14x+17y+42z-178=0. 

C. 14x+42y+17z-178=0. 

D. 42x+14y+17z-178=0. 

Answer = 14x+42y+17z-178=0

110.  A normal equation is formed by ____________. 

A. Subtracting algebraic coefficients. 

B. Adding algebraic coefficients. 

C. Dividing algebraic coefficients. 

D. Multiplying algebraic coefficients. 

Answer = Multiplying algebraic coefficients

111.  Which of the following represents the correct set of constants and variables present in a normal equation?. 

A. 4 consonants, 3 variables. 

B. 3 consonants, 4 variables. 

C. 2 consonants, 2 variables. 

D. 1 consonant, 1 variable. 

Answer = 4 consonants, 3 variables

112.  Most probable value can be found by using a ______________. 

A. Normal equation. 

B. Probability law. 

C. Probability curve. 

D. Algebraic coefficients. 

Answer = Normal equation

113.  Most probable value is not used in the determination of which of the following?. 

A. Observations by conditions. 

B. Indirect readings from unequal weights. 

C. Observations from equal weights. 

D. Probability curve. 

Answer = Probability curve

114.  The Most probable value found by normal equation involves the usage of known values.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

115.  It is necessary for the observed equations to be accompanied with condition equation.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

116.  Most probable value determines certain observations. Which among them will give accurate value?. 

A. Direct observation with unequal weights. 

B. Indirect observation with weights. 

C. Direct observation with weights. 

D. Observation with condition equation. 

Answer = Observation with condition equation

117.  Find the most probable value with the observations 2.76, 4.32, 9.87, 8.83 having equal weights.. 

A. 6.45. 

B. 6.54. 

C. 4.65. 

D. 5.46. 

Answer = 6.45

118.  From which of the following cases, the value of most probable value can be easily determined?. 

A. Indirect method. 

B. Direct method. 

C. Method of correlates. 

D. From observations. 

Answer = Method of correlates

119.  Determine the most probable value of B from the equations B = 65˚21ꞌ40ꞌꞌ weighing 3 and 2B = 132˚40ꞌ20ꞌꞌ weighing 2.. 

A. 141˚18ꞌ52.7ꞌꞌ. 

B. 114˚18ꞌ52.7ꞌꞌ. 

C. 114˚8ꞌ52.7ꞌꞌ. 

D. 411˚18ꞌ52.7ꞌꞌ. 

Answer = 114˚18ꞌ52.7ꞌꞌ

120.  From the set of observations (1.87+ 9.73+ 9.22), find the most probable value. The weights of the observations are given as 4, 7, 9 respectively.. 

A. 2.97. 

B. 9.72. 

C. 7.92. 

D. 7.29. 

Answer = 7.92

121.  The laws of weight are established on the basis of____________. 

A. Observed equation. 

B. Normal equation. 

C. Least squares. 

D. Probability equation. 

Answer = Least squares

122.  In the laws of weight, weight is inversely proportional to length.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

123.  Weight of the equation remains unchanged even when the signs in the equation are changed.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

124.  Find the arithmetic mean if the angles and their weights were given as 20˚42ꞌ3ꞌꞌ, 20˚42ꞌ4ꞌꞌ, 20˚42ꞌ6ꞌꞌ and 2, 2, 2 respectively.. 

A. 20˚42ꞌ6.3ꞌꞌ. 

B. 20˚42ꞌ5.3ꞌꞌ. 

C. 20˚42ꞌ1.3ꞌꞌ. 

D. 20˚42ꞌ4.3ꞌꞌ. 

Answer = 20˚42ꞌ4.3ꞌꞌ

125.  Determine the weight of the weighted arithmetic mean if the angles and their weights are given as 40˚56ꞌ2ꞌꞌ, 40˚56ꞌ7ꞌꞌ, 40˚56ꞌ12ꞌꞌ and 5, 4, 9 respectively.. 

A. 13.0. 

B. 18.0. 

C. 81.0. 

D. 10.0. 

Answer = 18.0

126.  Find the weight of the algebraic sum of the two quantities given as 21˚43ꞌ10ꞌꞌ, 54˚32ꞌ20ꞌꞌ, having weights 5, 7 respectively.. 

A. 13*35. 

B. 13/35. 

C. 35/13. 

D. 48.0. 

Answer = 35/13

127.  In order to form a normal equation, _____________ are needed.. 

A. Algebraic coefficients. 

B. Probability equation. 

C. Probability law. 

D. Probability curve. 

Answer = Algebraic coefficients

128.  Correlates can also be known as_____________. 

A. Unknown multiples. 

B. Known multiples. 

C. Eccentric multiples. 

D. Centric multiples. 

Answer = Unknown multiples

129.  All conditions are to be collected and used in which of the following case?. 

A. Most probable value. 

B. Normal equation. 

C. Method of correlates. 

D. Probability law. 

Answer = Method of correlates

130.  Determine the value of correction if the wave length is given as 25m, having weight 6.. 

A. 2.87. 

B. 7.14. 

C. 1.47. 

D. 4.17. 

Answer = 4.17

131.  Which of the following condition is to be used when the equal weights are introduced?. 

A. e12 – e22 – e32 = 0. 

B. e12 + e22 + e32 = 0. 

C. e12 + e22 – e32 = 0. 

D. e12 – e22 + e32 = 0. 

Answer = e12 + e22 + e32 = 0

132.  In case of method of correlation, the error is distributed to every observation.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

133.  Find the value of E if the wavelengths of different lines are given as 63m and 54m, having weights 6 and 7 respectively.. 

A. 8.27. 

B. 2.87. 

C. 2.78. 

D. 7.28. 

Answer = 2.78

134.  Which of the following describes the work done by the method of correlates?. 

A. Reducing the mean work. 

B. Neglecting the arithmetic work. 

C. Increasing the arithmetic work. 

D. Reducing the arithmetic work. 

Answer = Reducing the arithmetic work

135.  Ample conditions were used in method of correlates.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

136.  If the value of wave length is given as 21m with different weights 6 and 2, find the value of E.. 

A. 14.0. 

B. 13.0. 

C. 12.0. 

D. 10.0. 

Answer = 14.0

137.  Position of a celestial body can be determined by__________. 

A. Nadir. 

B. Azimuth. 

C. Zenith. 

D. Co-ordinates. 

Answer = Co-ordinates

138.  The angle between observer meridian and declination circle is given as____________. 

A. Hour angle. 

B. Azimuth. 

C. Bearing. 

D. Zenith. 

Answer = Hour angle

139.  The imaginary sphere on which stars appear to lie is known as__________. 

A. Cylindrical sphere. 

B. spheroid. 

C. Celestial sphere. 

D. Zenithal sphere. 

Answer = Celestial sphere

140.  The point above which the satellite or any celestial body lies is known as_____________. 

A. Zenith. 

B. Nadir. 

C. Visible horizon. 

D. Latitude. 

Answer = Nadir

141.  Which of the following doesn't represent the co-ordinate system used in determining position of celestial body?. 

A. Spherical co-ordinate system. 

B. Horizon system. 

C. Dependent system. 

D. Independent system. 

Answer = Spherical co-ordinate system

142.  The horizon system depends on which of the following?. 

A. Visible horizon. 

B. Nadir. 

C. Zenith. 

D. Observer's position. 

Answer = Observer's position

143.  Zenith distance can be given as z = _____________. 

A. z = 900 + α. 

B. z = 900 * α. 

C. z = 900 – α. 

D. z = 900 / α. 

Answer = z = 900 – α

144.  Equatorial circle is used as a reference in an independent equatorial system.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

145.  All the co-ordinates in dependent system will depend on observer's position.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

146.   In the dependent equatorial system, first co-ordinate represents on_________ and second co-ordinate represents on____________. 

A. Nadir, zenith. 

B. Zenith distance, hour angle. 

C. Hour angle, declination. 

D. Zenith, declination. 

Answer = Hour angle, declination

147.  Determine the spherical excess, if the area of the triangle is given as 32sq. m with radius 65m.. 

A. 1562.24 m. 

B. 1526.24 m. 

C. 1562.42 m. 

D. 1652.24 m. 

Answer = 1562.24 m

148.  If the radius of sphere is given as 43m and the spherical excess as 186.54m, find the area of a spherical triangle.. 

A. 6109.85 sq. m. 

B. 6019.58 sq. m. 

C. 6091.85 sq. m. 

D. 6019.85 sq. m. 

Answer = 6019.85 sq. m

149.  Which among the following is used in the formation of the astronomical triangle?. 

A. Zenith. 

B. Meridian. 

C. Horizon. 

D. Azimuth. 

Answer = Zenith

150.  When the greatest distance is to the east of the meridian then the elongation is said to be____________. 

A. Azimuthal elongation. 

B. Meridian elongation. 

C. Western elongation. 

D. Eastern elongation. 

Answer = Eastern elongation

151.  Which of the following cases determine that the astronomical triangle is right angled?. 

A. Star at horizon. 

B. Star at prime vertical. 

C. Star at culmination. 

D. Star at elongation. 

Answer = Star at prime vertical

152.  Napier's rule is used for the calculation of___________. 

A. Latitude. 

B. Declination. 

C. Hour angle. 

D. Horizon. 

Answer = Hour angle

153.  If the star is at horizon which of the following will be equal to zero?. 

A. Prime vertical. 

B. Altitude. 

C. Declination of circle. 

D. Meridian. 

Answer = Altitude

154.  A star crosses a meridian only once in its revolution.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

155.  Which of the following is obtained from astronomical triangle?. 

A. Relation between cylindrical co-ordinates. 

B. Relation between rectangular co-ordinates. 

C. Relation between geometrical co-ordinates. 

D. Relation between spherical co-ordinates. 

Answer = Relation between spherical co-ordinates

156.  Which of the following cases is not related to astronomical triangle?. 

A. Star at culmination. 

B. Star at elongation. 

C. Star at vertical. 

D. Star at prime vertical. 

Answer = Star at vertical

157.  The stars which always move above the horizon are called as__________. 

A. Circumpolar star. 

B. Prime star. 

C. Horizon star. 

D. Culmination star. 

Answer = Circumpolar star

158.   The culmination of the star depends upon which of the following factors?. 

A. Zenith. 

B. Altitude. 

C. Meridian. 

D.  Horizon. 

Answer = Altitude

159.  If the star is at elongation, find the altitude of the celestial body having declination and latitude as 24˚56ꞌ and 21˚43ꞌ.. 

A. 16˚16ꞌ. 

B. 61˚61ꞌ. 

C. 16˚16ꞌ. 

D. 61˚16ꞌ. 

Answer = 61˚16ꞌ

160.  Which of the following can be used to sight two different objects simultaneously?. 

A. Compass. 

B. Sextant. 

C. Theodolite. 

D. Abney level. 

Answer = Sextant

161.  Sextant can be used to measure vertical angles.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

162.  Which of the following is not a classification of sextant?. 

A. Box sextant. 

B. Nautical sextant. 

C. Vibrating sextant. 

D. Sounding sextant. 

Answer = Vibrating sextant

163.  Which of the following can justify the principle of sextant?. 

A. β = α/2. 

B. α = β*2. 

C. α = β+2. 

D. α = β-2. 

Answer = α = β-2

164.  Which of the following doesn't serve as an optical requirement in case of sextant?. 

A. Optical axis must be parallel. 

B. Mirrors if placed parallel should be zero. 

C. Mirrors must be perpendicular. 

D. Optical axis must be perpendicular. 

Answer = Optical axis must be parallel

165.  Which classification of the sextant is used for navigation purposes?. 

A. Box sextant. 

B. Nautical sextant. 

C. Vibrating sextant. 

D. Sounding sextant. 

Answer = Nautical sextant

166.  Which of the following instruments can be used for locating inaccessible points?. 

A. Sounding sextant. 

B. Vibrating sextant. 

C. Box sextant. 

D. Nautical sextant. 

Answer = Box sextant

167.  Among the following, which doesn't come under permanent adjustment of sextant?. 

A. Index glass perpendicular with graduated arc. 

B. Horizon glass perpendicular with graduated arc. 

C. Line of sight parallel to plane of graduated arc. 

D. Line of sight perpendicular to plane of graduated arc. 

Answer = Line of sight perpendicular to plane of graduated arc

168.  Which of the following need not to be changed in case of box sextant?. 

A. Line of sight. 

B. Index glass. 

C. Index error. 

D. Lens. 

Answer = Index glass

169.  If the index error is not large, error must be corrected.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

170.  Correction for parallax is given as___________. 

A. Horizontal parallax * sin of apparent altitude. 

B. Horizontal parallax * cot of apparent altitude. 

C. Horizontal parallax * tan of apparent altitude. 

D. Horizontal parallax * cos of apparent altitude. 

Answer = Horizontal parallax * cos of apparent altitude

171.  Express the 24˚12ꞌ42ꞌꞌ in hours, minutes and seconds.. 

A. 4h 36m 50.8s. 

B. 16h 36m 50.8s. 

C. 1h 36m 50.8s. 

D. 1h 6m 20.8s. 

Answer = 1h 36m 50.8s

172.  Determine the local time if the standard time is 19h 42m 7s and the difference in longitude can be given as 3h 9m towards west.. 

A. 16h 33m 7s. 

B. 61h 33m 7s. 

C. 16h 34m 5s. 

D. 6h 33m 7s. 

Answer = 16h 33m 7s

173.  Find G.M.T of a place if the L.M.T is given as 9h 24m 17s and the longitude 10h 23m 32s towards east.. 

A. 19h 47m 4s. 

B. 19h 47m 49s. 

C. 9h 47m 49s. 

D. 19h 4m 49s. 

Answer = 19h 47m 49s

174.  Which of the following indicate the standard time meridian of India?. 

A. 82˚3ꞌ. 

B. 28˚30ꞌ. 

C. 8˚30ꞌ. 

D. 82˚30ꞌ. 

Answer = 82˚30ꞌ

175.  The mean time associated with the standard meridian can be given as_________. 

A. Meridian time. 

B. Average time. 

C. Standard time. 

D. Absolute time. 

Answer = Average time

176.  The formula of mean solar time can be given as ____________. 

A. Hour angle + 12h. 

B. Seconds angle + 12h. 

C. Minutes angle + 12h. 

D. Hour angle + 24h. 

Answer = Hour angle + 12h

177.  Express the hours (19h 42m 16s) in angles.. 

A. 259˚34ꞌ. 

B. 295˚43ꞌ. 

C. 295˚34ꞌ. 

D. 25˚34ꞌ. 

Answer = 295˚34ꞌ

178.  Which of the following indicates formula for green witch mean time?. 

A. G.M.T = L.M.T * longitude of the place. 

B. G.M.T = L.M.T ± longitude of the place. 

C. G.M.T = L.M.T + longitude of the place. 

D. G.M.T = L.M.T / longitude of the place. 

Answer = G.M.T = L.M.T ± longitude of the place

179.  Calculate mean solar time if the hour angle of the sun is 34h 21m 15s.. 

A. 46h 21m 15s. 

B. 64h 21m 15s. 

C. 46h 12m 15s. 

D. 46h 21m 51s. 

Answer = 46h 21m 15s

180.  Which of the following doesn't belong to the set of corrections applied in astronomical corrections?. 

A. Correction of parallax. 

B. Correction of sag. 

C. Correction of refraction. 

D. Correction of semi-diameter. 

Answer = Correction of sag

181.  Magnitude of refraction depends upon which of the following factors?. 

A. Density. 

B. Surface tension. 

C. Reflection. 

D. Polarisation. 

Answer = Density

182.  Correction to the dip is always_____________. 

A. Zero. 

B. Multiplicative. 

C. Subtractive. 

D. Additive. 

Answer = Subtractive

183.  Which of the following is always subtractive?. 

A. Correction for reflection. 

B. Correction for dip. 

C. Correction for parallax. 

D. Correction for polarization. 

Answer = Correction for dip

184.  The relation between altitude and latitude of the observer can be given as__________. 

A. Equal. 

B. Minimum. 

C. Maximum. 

D. Not equal. 

Answer = Equal

185.  The sign for the deflection angle depends upon _______________. 

A. Altitude. 

B. Zenith. 

C. Celestial body. 

D. Horizon. 

Answer = Celestial body

186.  Determine the latitude of the observer if the altitude of the pole is given as 23˚41ꞌ.. 

A. 32˚14ꞌ. 

B. 32˚41ꞌ. 

C. 23˚14ꞌ. 

D. 23˚41ꞌ. 

Answer = 23˚41ꞌ

187.  Find the latitude of the observer if the declination is about 54˚32ꞌ having a meridian zenith of about 10m.. 

A. 64˚2ꞌ. 

B. 64˚32ꞌ. 

C. 46˚32ꞌ. 

D. 64˚23ꞌ. 

Answer = 64˚32ꞌ

188.  Find the difference of longitude between A = 30˚E and B = 160˚E.. 

A. 130˚. 

B. 310˚. 

C. 13˚. 

D. 30˚. 

Answer = 130˚

189.  If longitudes of A and B are given as 32˚12ꞌ W, 44˚2ꞌ W having latitude 29˚24ꞌ. Find the distance in km between the points A and B.. 

A. 19.54km. 

B. 91.1km. 

C. 11.9km. 

D. 19.1km. 

Answer = 19.1km

190.  Which of the following indicates the formula for hour angle of equinox?. 

A. Hour angle of star-  R.A of the star. 

B. Hour angle of star+  R.A of the star. 

C. Hour angle of star /  R.A of the star. 

D. Hour angle of star*  R.A of the star. 

Answer = Hour angle of star+  R.A of the star

191.  The distance between the points in a celestial body can be determined by using __________. 

A. Napier's rule. 

B. Celestial rule. 

C. Zenithal rule. 

D. Obligate rule. 

Answer = Napier's rule

192.  Determine the zenith distance if the declination of star is given as 74˚32ꞌ and the latitude of the observer as 54˚21ꞌ.. 

A. 0˚12ꞌ. 

B. 2˚11ꞌ. 

C. 20˚11ꞌ. 

D. 20˚15ꞌ. 

Answer = 20˚11ꞌ

193.  If the zenith distance is given as 26˚57ꞌ, find the altitude of the star at upper culmination.. 

A. 63˚30ꞌ. 

B. 36˚3ꞌ. 

C. 3˚36ꞌ. 

D. 63˚3ꞌ. 

Answer = 63˚3ꞌ

194.  Which of the following indicates the use of Zenith telescope?. 

A. Zenith placement. 

B. Zero error. 

C. Low precision. 

D. High precision. 

Answer = High precision

195.  Zenith telescope also known as__________. 

A. Zenith sector. 

B. Sextant. 

C. Zenith horizon. 

D. Azimuthal telescope. 

Answer = Zenith sector

196.  Which of the following describes the usage of zenith telescope?. 

A. Determination of equator. 

B. Determination of earth poles. 

C. Determination of tropic of Capricorn. 

D. Determination of tropic of cancer. 

Answer = Determination of earth poles

197.  Large zenith telescope is having a diameter of range ___________. 

A. 0.5-2m. 

B. 1-2m. 

C. 2-2.5m. 

D. 3-4m. 

Answer = 3-4m

198.  Zenith telescope has been replaced by___________. 

A. Celestial telescope. 

B. Astronomical telescope. 

C. Radio astronomical quasar. 

D. Abnormal telescope. 

Answer = Radio astronomical quasar

199.  Zenith telescope can track the points other than its line of sight.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

200.  Large zenith telescope is used at___________. 

A. Australia. 

B. India. 

C. South America. 

D. North America. 

Answer = North America

201.  Which of the following indicates the objective of the zenith telescope?. 

A. Spectral energy consumption. 

B. Spectral energy dissolution. 

C. Spectral energy distribution. 

D. Spectral energy reflection. 

Answer = Spectral energy distribution

202.  Zenith telescope is more expensive.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

203.  Who among the following theorized zenith telescope for the first time?. 

A. Sir Isaac Newton. 

B. Albert Einstein. 

C. Ramanujan. 

D. Faraday. 

Answer = Sir Isaac Newton

204.  Photo theodolite is a combination of________________. 

A.  Theodolite, terrestrial camera. 

B. Electronic theodolite, terrestrial camera. 

C. Theodolite, aerial camera. 

D. Electronic theodolite, aerial camera. 

Answer =  Theodolite, terrestrial camera

205.  Focal length of photo theodolite is around_____________. 

A. 10-20 cm. 

B. 10-15 cm. 

C. 15-20 cm. 

D. 15-30 cm. 

Answer = 15-30 cm

206.  Vertical circle provided in the photo theodolite is graduated up to_____________. 

A. 10 min. 

B. 30 min. 

C. 20 min. 

D. 15 min. 

Answer = 30 min

207.  The plane perpendicular to the camera axis can be given as___________. 

A. Vertical plane. 

B. Horizontal plane. 

C. Picture plane. 

D. Azimuthal plane. 

Answer = Picture plane

208.  Which of the following is having the same principle as that of photo-theodolite?. 

A. Traverse surveying. 

B. Theodolite surveying. 

C. Compass surveying. 

D. Plane-table surveying. 

Answer = Plane-table surveying

209.  Among the following, which doesn't belong to the parts of photo-theodolite?. 

A. Vertical frame. 

B. Theodolite. 

C. Rectangular frame. 

D. Tripod stand. 

Answer = Theodolite

210.  Telescope fitted in the photo-theodolite can be rotated in a horizontal plane.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

211.  The axis of camera passes through____________. 

A. Centre of the lens. 

B. Centre of the axis. 

C. Centre of the aperture. 

D. Centre of the camera lens. 

Answer = Centre of the camera lens

212.  The formula of focal length used in case of the lens fitted in telescope is given as _____. 

A. 1/f = 1u – 1/v. 

B. 1/f = 1u / 1/v. 

C. 1/f = 1u + 1/v. 

D. 1/f = 1u * 1/v. 

Answer = 1/f = 1u + 1/v

213.  Which of the following describes the principle point?. 

A. Intersection of the camera axis with picture plane. 

B. Intersection of the camera axis with normal plane. 

C. Intersection of the camera axis with image plane. 

D. Intersection of the camera axis with plane. 

Answer = Intersection of the camera axis with picture plane

214.  Both Terrestrial and aerial cameras are having the same functionality.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

215.  Which of the following doesn't include in the lens?. 

A. Filter. 

B. Shutter. 

C. Diaphragm. 

D. Azimuth. 

Answer = Azimuth

216.  While using a large lens, which type of shutter is adopted?. 

A. Between-the –lens shutter. 

B. Louvre shutter. 

C. Focal plane shutter. 

D. Ideal shutter. 

Answer = Louvre shutter

217.  Which among the following specifies the use of diaphragm?. 

A. Adjusting focal plane. 

B. Managing azimuth. 

C. Adjusting horizon. 

D. Managing size of aperture. 

Answer = Managing size of aperture

218.  Which of the following is not an essential part of the aerial camera?. 

A. Shutter. 

B. Lens. 

C. Horizon. 

D. Magazine. 

Answer = Horizon

219.  Which among the following is placed in between lens elements?. 

A. Diaphragm. 

B. Lens. 

C. Line of sight. 

D. Magazine. 

Answer = Diaphragm

220.  Filter consists of ________. 

A. piece of aperture. 

B. piece of hole. 

C. piece of glass. 

D. piece of lens. 

Answer = piece of glass

221.  Focal plane is provided at_____________. 

A. Point of resection. 

B. Point of intersection. 

C. Point of contraction. 

D. Point of collimation. 

Answer = Point of intersection

222.  Which of the following doesn't come under drive mechanism?. 

A. Tripping the shutter. 

B. Operating vacuum system. 

C. Winding the film. 

D. Binding the film. 

Answer = Binding the film

223.  Which of the following can hold the films of the focal plane?. 

A. Magazine. 

B. Convergence. 

C. Divergence. 

D. Intersection. 

Answer = Magazine

224.  Which of the following photographs may have a varying scale?. 

A. Datum photograph. 

B. Horizontal photograph. 

C. Vertical photograph. 

D. Tilted photograph. 

Answer = Tilted photograph

225.  Among the following, which must be known for determining scale in a tilted photograph?. 

A. Focal length. 

B. Datum height. 

C. Azimuth. 

D. Zenith. 

Answer = Focal length

226.  The geometric process involved in the determination of scale for titled photograph is____________. 

A. Spherical. 

B. Cylindrical. 

C. Analytical. 

D. Co-ordinate. 

Answer = Analytical

227.  Which of the following indicates the formula of scale for a tilted photograph?. 

A. sh = (f*sec t / mn*sin t) / (H-h). 

B. sh = (f*sec t * mn*sin t) / (H-h). 

C. sh = (f*sec t + mn*sin t) / (H-h). 

D. sh = (f*sec t – mn*sin t) / (H-h). 

Answer = sh = (f*sec t – mn*sin t) / (H-h)

228.  Which of the following is not recommended in case of determining the scale of a tilted photograph?. 

A. Axis. 

B. Focal length. 

C. Height of the point. 

D. Tilt. 

Answer = Axis

229.  Determine the length of the line AB having co-ordinates (2, 4), (6, 7).. 

A. 3.16m. 

B. 31.6m. 

C. 13.6m. 

D. 13.9m. 

Answer = 13.6m

230.  Flying height can be determined by using tilted photograph.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

231.  For identification of length of a line, co-ordinates must be known.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

232.  Variation in scale of photograph can take place due variation in_____________. 

A. Datum. 

B. Azimuth. 

C. Zenith. 

D. Elevation. 

Answer = Elevation

233.  Which of the following indicates the formula for scale?. 

A. Ground distance / map distance. 

B. Map distance / ground distance. 

C. Map distance / elevation point. 

D. Elevation point / map distance. 

Answer = Map distance / ground distance

234.  Scale at elevation point in photograph can be given as_____________. 

A. S = f/ (H – h). 

B. S = f/ (H + h). 

C. S = f/ (H * h). 

D. S = f/ (- H + h). 

Answer = S = f/ (H – h)

235.  Which of the following can also be used in order to determine the scale of a photograph?. 

A. Recurring fraction. 

B. Reciprocating fraction. 

C. Representation fraction. 

D. Reducing fraction. 

Answer = Representation fraction

236.  If all the ground points are projected vertically downward on the mean sea level, which scale is recommended to be used?. 

A. Datum scale. 

B. Average scale. 

C. Azimuth scale. 

D. Reference scale. 

Answer = Datum scale

237.  The formula for average scale can be given as______________. 

A. S = f / (H+hav). 

B. S = f / (H*hav). 

C. S = f / (-H+hav). 

D. S = f / (H-hav). 

Answer = S = f / (H-hav)

238.  Which of the following indicates the right step for determination of scale?. 

A. Measuring ground distance. 

B. Comparing angles. 

C. Joining elevation points. 

D. Comparing zenith levels. 

Answer = Joining elevation points

239.  The value of horizontal distance can be determined by which of the following methods?. 

A. Traversing. 

B. Triangulation. 

C. Theodolite surveying. 

D. Compass surveying. 

Answer = Triangulation

240.  Determine the scale at elevation point if the values of focal length, height of station and the height of mean sea level are given by 23cm, 76cm and 20cm.. 

A. 0.41cm. 

B. 0.4cm. 

C. 4.41cm. 

D. 1.41cm. 

Answer = 0.41cm

241.  What will be the average elevation of terrain if the scale is given as 43m, focal length and height of the station as 4m and 20m?. 

A. 19.19 m. 

B. 91.91 m. 

C. 9.91 m. 

D. 9.9 m. 

Answer = 9.9 m

242.  Photographic scale can be determined by using the photo distance.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

243.  For finding the scale of a photograph, the points must be equally elevated.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

244.  Stereoscopic measurement involves in__________. 

A. Fusing photographs. 

B. Stripping photographs. 

C. Tilting photographs. 

D. Placing vertical. 

Answer = Fusing photographs

245.  The errors caused due to terrestrial photogrammetry can be reduced by_______. 

A. Stereo photogrammetry. 

B. Terrestrial stereo photogrammetry. 

C. Remote sensing. 

D. GIS. 

Answer = Terrestrial stereo photogrammetry

246.  Which process is capable of covering maximum area with minimum effort?. 

A. Terrestrial photogrammetry. 

B. Remote sensing. 

C. GIS. 

D. Traversing. 

Answer = Terrestrial photogrammetry

247.  Which among the following methods is easy in computing photographs?. 

A. Remote sensing. 

B. Plane table photogrammetry. 

C. Terrestrial photogrammetry. 

D. GIS. 

Answer = Terrestrial photogrammetry

248.  Which among the following is the best mapping procedure?. 

A. Elite photogrammetry. 

B. plane table photogrammetry. 

C. Terrestrial photogrammetry. 

D. Aerial photogrammetry. 

Answer = Aerial photogrammetry

249.  Which of the following is used in Terrestrial photogrammetry?. 

A. Horizon. 

B. Maps. 

C. Zenith. 

D. Azimuth. 

Answer = Maps

250.  In terrestrial method, both plotting recording are done simultaneously.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

251.  Which of the following processes cover entire area in a short span?. 

A. Aerial photogrammetry. 

B. Terrestrial photogrammetry. 

C. Theodolite surveying. 

D. Traverse surveying. 

Answer = Terrestrial photogrammetry

252.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of terrestrial photogrammetric classification?. 

A. Plane-table, stereo. 

B. Theodolite, terrestrial. 

C. Plane-table, terrestrial stereo. 

D. Theodolite, terrestrial stereo. 

Answer = Plane-table, terrestrial stereo

253.  Which among the following is capable of giving accuracy in its output?. 

A. Traverse surveying. 

B. Theodolite surveying. 

C. Aerial photogrammetry. 

D. Terrestrial photogrammetry. 

Answer = Terrestrial photogrammetry

254.  The distance between nodal point and the plane of the photograph depends on the __________. 

A. Focal length of the mirror. 

B. Aperture. 

C. Line of sight. 

D. Focal length of the lens. 

Answer = Focal length of the lens

255.  Minimum 4 mirrors are used in case of a mirror stereoscope.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

256.  Which of the following doesn't indicate the purpose of stereoscope?. 

A. Relation between convergence and accommodation. 

B. Line of sight justification. 

C. Perception of depth. 

D. Assisting eyes on the image. 

Answer = Line of sight justification

257.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of Stereoscope classification?. 

A. Mirror stereoscope and prism stereoscope. 

B. Mirror stereoscope and plane table stereoscope. 

C. Mirror stereoscope and lens stereoscope. 

D. Lens stereoscope and plane table stereoscope. 

Answer = Mirror stereoscope and lens stereoscope

258.  Which of the following processes help in placing the image on fovea?. 

A. Convergence. 

B. Magazine. 

C. Focal length. 

D. Aperture. 

Answer = Convergence

259.  Which of the following is involved in obtaining spatial relation?. 

A. Focal length. 

B. Binocular vision. 

C. Polarization. 

D. Telescopic vision. 

Answer = Binocular vision

260.  Which of the following won't serve as a reason for the impression of depth?. 

A. Relative size of objects. 

B. Light effects. 

C. Calculation of azimuth. 

D. Simultaneous view. 

Answer = Calculation of azimuth

261.  The stereoscopic vision can be applied to ____________. 

A. Photogrammetry. 

B. Theodolite surveying. 

C. Traversing. 

D. Compass surveying. 

Answer = Photogrammetry

262.  Lens used in the stereoscope can be flattened by which among the following methods?. 

A. Head parallax. 

B. Divergence. 

C. Convergence. 

D. Accommodation. 

Answer = Accommodation

263.  The difference between the images on retina is given as__________. 

A. Retinal disparity. 

B. Stereoscopic disparity. 

C. Difference in retinal. 

D. Stereoscopic retina. 

Answer = Retinal disparity

264.  Which of the following doesn't come under the ideal conditions of stereoscopic views?. 

A. Elevation of camera position. 

B. Measuring iso centric distance. 

C. Making camera axis vertical. 

D. Overlapping of photograph. 

Answer = Measuring iso centric distance

265.  Overlapping in the direction of flight can be described as_____________. 

A. Forward overlap. 

B. Side lap. 

C. Backward overlap. 

D. Adjacent overlap. 

Answer = Forward overlap

266.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of overlapping percentage?. 

A. 50-60%. 

B. 55-70%. 

C. 50-70%. 

D. 55-60%. 

Answer = 55-60%

267.  Overlapping occurred due to adjacent flight lines can be termed as__________. 

A. Front lap. 

B. Forward lap. 

C. Side lap. 

D. Straight lap. 

Answer = Side lap

268.  Determine the distance of flight strips if the height lens placed is given as 56m.. 

A. 68.32m. 

B. 86.32m. 

C. 68.56m. 

D. 86.39m. 

Answer = 68.32m

269.  What will be the distance between the flight strips if the value at point B is given as 6m?. 

A. 28m. 

B. 12m. 

C. 21m. 

D. 124m. 

Answer = 12m

270.  The formula for determining the distance between flight strips can be given as_________. 

A. W = 1.22+H. 

B. W = 1.22-H. 

C. W = 1.22/H. 

D. W = 1.22*H. 

Answer = W = 1.22*H

271.  Overlapping increases the amount of work to be done.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

272.  The relation between normal direction of flight and the rectangular area can be given as_________. 

A. 2W = 2*B. 

B. W = 2*B. 

C. 3W = 2*B. 

D. 4W = 2*B. 

Answer = W = 2*B

273.  Calculate the flying height if the contour interval is given as 6m.. 

A. 300km. 

B. 300m. 

C. 3000m. 

D. 3000cm. 

Answer = 3000m

274.  Unless the area is mapped, W value must be reduced.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

275.  The value of c-factor lies in between ____________. 

A. 500-1500. 

B. 50-1500. 

C. 50-150. 

D. 150-550. 

Answer = 500-1500

276.  Which of the following is not considered while calculating distance between flight strips?. 

A. Vertical photographs. 

B. Mitigating crab. 

C. Eradicating drift of the aircraft. 

D. Line of sight. 

Answer = Line of sight

277.  The lens used in aerial photogrammetry is having a maximum coverage capacity of_________(in angles). 

A. 930.0. 

B. 630.0. 

C. 530.0. 

D. 980.0. 

Answer = 930.0

278.  Which of the following is not a type of shutter used in aerial photogrammetry?. 

A. Between-the-lens shutter. 

B. Louvre shutter. 

C. Ideal shutter. 

D. Focal plane shutter. 

Answer = Ideal shutter

279.  For placing focal plane, which is used as a reference?. 

A. Focal length. 

B. Horizon. 

C. Azimuth. 

D. Collimation marks. 

Answer = Collimation marks

280.  Focal plane varies while aerial photogrammetry is carried out.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

281.  Which among the following surveying methods is meant to be having high precision?. 

A. Aerial photogrammetry. 

B. Terrestrial photogrammetry. 

C. Theodolite surveying. 

D. Traverse surveying. 

Answer = Aerial photogrammetry

282.  Vertical photograph coincides with the__________. 

A. Direction of line of sight. 

B. Direction of lens. 

C. Direction of aperture. 

D. Direction of gravity. 

Answer = Direction of gravity

283.  How much inclination must be provided in a tilted photograph?. 

A. 13˚. 

B. 20˚. 

C. 3˚. 

D. 34˚. 

Answer = 3˚

284.  If the apparent horizon is shown in a photograph, it is low oblique.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

285.  Perspective projection is produced from__________. 

A. Straight lines radiating a common point. 

B. Straight lines radiating different points. 

C. Parallel lines radiating a common point. 

D. Perpendicular lines radiating a common point. 

Answer = Straight lines radiating a common point

286.  Flying height refers to_________. 

A. Upper portion of the exposure station. 

B. Bottom of the exposure station. 

C. Depression of the exposure station. 

D. Elevation of the exposure station. 

Answer = Elevation of the exposure station

287.  Difference in parallax can be obtained due to___________. 

A. Distance between zenith. 

B. Distance between bearing. 

C. Distance between azimuth. 

D. Distance between points sights. 

Answer = Distance between points sights

288.  Which of the following can be used to view stereo pair?. 

A. Aerial camera. 

B. Stereoscope. 

C. Stereoscopic camera. 

D. Telescope. 

Answer = Stereoscope

289.  Which of the following doesn't come under the category of depth perception?. 

A. Accommodation. 

B. Head parallax. 

C. Divergence. 

D. Retinal display. 

Answer = Divergence

290.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of stereoscope classifications?. 

A. Lens and azimuth stereoscope. 

B. Mirror and azimuth stereoscope. 

C. Mirror and lens stereoscope. 

D. Mirror stereoscope and stereo pair. 

Answer = Mirror and lens stereoscope

291.  Which of the following indicate parallax equation for ground co-ordinate point?. 

A. X = B*x + p. 

B. X = B*x – p. 

C. X = B*x * p. 

D. X = B*x / p. 

Answer = X = B*x / p

292.  The distance between nodal point and plane of photograph depends on datum height.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

293.  Displacement due to successive exposures can be given as_____________. 

A. Visual parallax. 

B. Multiple exposure. 

C. Exposure. 

D. Parallax. 

Answer = Parallax

294.  The value of overlapping parallax can be determined by ___________. 

A. P = x / xꞌ. 

B. P = x – xꞌ. 

C. P = x * xꞌ. 

D. P = x + xꞌ. 

Answer = P = x – xꞌ

295.  Determine the value of parallax, if the x-coordinate on left hand photograph is 54 and on right hand photograph is 32.. 

A. 24.0. 

B. 12.0. 

C. 22.0. 

D. 27.0. 

Answer = 22.0

296.  Which of the following doesn't serve as a condition for an aerial stereoscopic view?. 

A. Excessive overlapping. 

B. Elevation of camera for exposure. 

C. Vertical camera axis. 

D. Sufficient overlapping. 

Answer = Excessive overlapping

297.  Which of the following doesn't indicate a stage in remote sensing?. 

A. Reflectance of energy. 

B. Transmission of energy. 

C. Energy source. 

D. Absorption of energy. 

Answer = Absorption of energy

298.  The electromagnetic wave travelling from source to the object is having same wave length.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

299.  Which of the following indicates the functioning of a sensor?. 

A. Transmits energy. 

B. Absorbs wave length. 

C. Sensitive to wave length. 

D. Reflects energy. 

Answer = Sensitive to wave length

300.  Among the following, which indicates the correct set of classification of data?. 

A. Analog, digital. 

B. Digital, binary. 

C. Binary, analog. 

D. Vector, raster. 

Answer = Analog, digital

301.  Which type of remote sensing uses its own source of electromagnetic energy?. 

A. Passive. 

B. Active. 

C. Satellite. 

D. Orbital. 

Answer = Active

302.  The correct sequence of transmission of electromagnetic waves in remote sensing system can be given as ___________. 

A. Energy source, transmission of signal, propagation of signal. 

B. Transmission of signal, propagation of signal, energy source. 

C. Propagation of signal, transmission of signal, energy source. 

D. Energy source, propagation of energy, transmission of signal. 

Answer = Energy source, propagation of energy, transmission of signal

303.  Signal can be generated by____________. 

A. Interaction of EM waves with surface. 

B. Interaction of EM waves with energy source. 

C. Interaction of EM waves with atmosphere. 

D. Interaction of EM waves with sensor. 

Answer = Interaction of EM waves with surface

304.  Which among the following is the first Indian remote sensing satellite?. 

A. Quick Bird. 

B. SPOT. 

C. IRS-1A. 

D. MOS. 

Answer = IRS-1A

305.  Among the following, the correct set of remote sensing classification can be given as__________. 

A. Active, orbital. 

B. Active, passive. 

C. Passive, orbital. 

D. Orbital, satellite. 

Answer = Active, passive

306.  The data obtained by the process of remote sensing needs great knowledge to understand it.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

307.  Which among the following is not a phenomenon in case of interaction of EM waves on earth surface?. 

A. Reflection. 

B. Absorption. 

C. Transmission. 

D. Refraction. 

Answer = Refraction

308.  Which of the following can be changed while interaction of EM wave with a surface?. 

A. Intensity. 

B. Diffraction. 

C. Wave length. 

D. Direction. 

Answer = Diffraction

309.  Which of the following indicates a volume phenomenon?. 

A. Refraction. 

B. Reflection. 

C. Transmission. 

D. Diffraction. 

Answer = Transmission

310.  Determine the energy of the wave length, if the reflected, absorbed and transmitted energies were given as 56J, 24J and 7J respectively.. 

A. 87J. 

B. 78J. 

C. 89J. 

D. 17J. 

Answer = 87J

311.  Find the value of reflectance if the reflected and incident energies are given as 43J and 87J.. 

A. 0.94. 

B. 0.42. 

C. 0.99. 

D. 0.49. 

Answer = 0.49

312.  What will be the value of absorbance, if the absorbed and incident energies are given as 67J and 109J respectively?. 

A. 0.16. 

B. 0.61. 

C. 0.69. 

D. 0.72. 

Answer = 0.61

313.  Find the transmittance, if the transmitted and incident energies are given as 156J and 987J respectively.. 

A. 0.51. 

B. 0.45. 

C. 0.15. 

D. 0.5. 

Answer = 0.15

314.  What will be reflectance value if the possess an emissivity of 56.. 

A. 55.0. 

B. 50.0. 

C. 54.0. 

D. 52.0. 

Answer = 55.0

315.  When emissivity is zero, what will be the value of reflectance?. 

A. One. 

B. Zero. 

C. Ten. 

D. Not equal to one. 

Answer = Not equal to one

316.  The relation between velocity, wavelength and frequency can be given as_________. 

A. λ = c / r. 

B. λ = c / f. 

C. λ = c / h. 

D. λ = h*c / f. 

Answer = λ = c / f

317.  Remote sensing uses which of the following waves in its procedure?. 

A. Electric field. 

B. Sonar waves. 

C. Gamma- rays. 

D. Electro-magnetic waves. 

Answer = Electro-magnetic waves

318.  Which of the following is not a principle of remote sensing?. 

A. Interaction of energy with satellite. 

B. Electromagnetic energy. 

C. Electro-magnetic spectrum. 

D. Interaction of energy with atmosphere. 

Answer = Interaction of energy with satellite

319.  Which among the following waves is having less wavelength range?. 

A. 0.03mm. 

B. 0.03nm. 

C. 0.03m. 

D. 0.03km. 

Answer = 0.03nm

320.  In visible region, the blue light is having a wave length range of __________. 

A. 0.42-0.52 micrometer. 

B. 0.24-0.52 micrometer. 

C. 0.42-0.92 micrometer. 

D. 0.22-0.32 micrometer. 

Answer = 0.42-0.52 micrometer

321.  Which of the following field is used by the EM waves?. 

A. Solar field. 

B. Polarized field. 

C. Electric field. 

D. Micro field. 

Answer = Electric field

322.  Among the following, which describes Stefan- Boltzmann formula?. 

A. M = σ/T4. 

B. M = σ-T4. 

C. M = σ+T4. 

D. M = σ*T4. 

Answer = M = σ*T4

323.  Which of the following is not a classification of scattering principle?. 

A. Faraday scattering. 

B. Rayleigh scattering. 

C. Mie scattering. 

D. Non-selective scattering. 

Answer = Faraday scattering

324.  Which of the following can act as an example for air-borne platform?. 

A. LISS-III. 

B. Dakota. 

C. MOS. 

D. LISS-II. 

Answer = Dakota

325.  Polar orbiting satellites are generally placed at an altitude range of __________. 

A. 7-15km. 

B. 7000-15000km. 

C. 700-1500km. 

D. 70-150km. 

Answer = 700-1500km

326.  Diameter of sun can be given as____________. 

A. 1.39 * 107 km. 

B. 1.9 * 106 km. 

C. 1.39 * 106 km. 

D. 1.39 * 1016 km. 

Answer = 1.39 * 106 km

327.  The energy radiated from sun in visible region will be around____________. 

A. 0.43. 

B. 0.45. 

C. 0.47. 

D. 0.5. 

Answer = 0.43

328.  The value of solar constant can be given as__________. 

A. 1637 W / m2. 

B. 1367 W / m2. 

C. 136 W / m2. 

D. 3167 W / m2. 

Answer = 1367 W / m2

329.  Temperature on the sun is around______________. 

A. 575 – 600 K. 

B. 7550 – 8000 K. 

C. 5570 – 6000 K. 

D. 5750 – 6000 K. 

Answer = 5750 – 6000 K

330.  Around how much percentage, the incident radiant flux can be absorbed by the materials present on earth?. 

A. 0.48. 

B. 0.37. 

C. 0.42. 

D. 0.5. 

Answer = 0.48

331.  Determine the spectral existence of a black body if the absolute temperature can be given as 300K.. 

A. 1968*10-11 W/sq. m. 

B. 1689*10-11 W/sq. m. 

C. 6298*10-11 W/sq. m. 

D. 1698*10-11 W/sq. m. 

Answer = 1698*10-11 W/sq. m

332.  Find the value of λ, if the temperature of the body is given as 560K.. 

A. 4.16*10-14 m. 

B. 6.16*10-14 m. 

C. 5.16*10-14 m. 

D. 5.16*10-4 m. 

Answer = 5.16*10-14 m

333.  Determine the spectral existence of a body by using plank's law, if the wave length is given as 456m and the absolute temperature is 765K.. 

A. 3.6*1030 W / sq. m. 

B. 4.6*1030 W / sq. m. 

C. 6.6*1030 W / sq. m. 

D. 3.6*1030 W / sq. m. 

Answer = 3.6*1030 W / sq. m

334.  Determine the absolute temperature of the body from Stefan – Boltzmann law if spectral existence of the body is 3.55 * 10-10 W /sq. m. 

A. 19.58 K. 

B. 1.58 K. 

C. 15.58 K. 

D. 1.85 K. 

Answer = 1.58 K

335.  From Wien's displacement law, determine the absolute temperature if wave length is given as 0.05m.. 

A. 7.8*10-3 K. 

B. 75.8*10-3 K. 

C. 57.25*10-35 K. 

D. 57.8*10-3 K. 

Answer = 57.8*10-3 K

336.  Which of the following has the maximum value in an electric or magnetic field?. 

A. Wave length. 

B. Focal length. 

C. Frequency. 

D. Amplitude. 

Answer = Amplitude

337.  Velocity of light can be given as___________. 

A. 1*108m/s. 

B. 3.9*108m/s. 

C. 3*108m/s. 

D. 3*1018m/s. 

Answer = 3*108m/s

338.  In EM waves, electric field is not used.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

339.  Determine the wave length if the frequency is given as 67Hz.. 

A. 1.044*108m. 

B. 0.044*108m. 

C. 0.44*108m. 

D. 0.044*1010m. 

Answer = 0.044*108m

340.  Find the value of energy if the wave length is given as 43m.. 

A. 0.46*10-26 J. 

B. 0.46*10-26 J. 

C. 0.46*10-26 J. 

D. 0.46*10-26 J. 

Answer = 0.46*10-26 J

341.  If the intensity of wave length decreases, the energy released will  ___________. 

A. Increase. 

B. Decrease. 

C. Remain same. 

D. Zero. 

Answer = Increase

342.  What will be the wave length if the energy produced is 36J?. 

A. 0.5*10-26m. 

B. 0.55*10-26m. 

C. 0.55*10-16m. 

D. 0.55*10-6m. 

Answer = 0.55*10-26m

343.  In an EM field, which filed is placed horizontal?. 

A. Gamma rays. 

B. Sonar field. 

C. Electric field. 

D. Magnetic field. 

Answer = Magnetic field

344.  The wave length sensed in remote sensing are __________. 

A. Nano meters and giga meters range. 

B. Nano meters and deci meters range. 

C. Nano meters and micro meters range. 

D. Nano meters and meters range. 

Answer = Nano meters and micro meters range

345.  Energy of the discrete particles can be given by_______. 

A. Photons. 

B. Protoplasm. 

C. Electrons. 

D. Neutrons. 

Answer = Photons

346.  Which among the following is having more wavelengths?. 

A. X-rays. 

B. Cosmic waves. 

C. Radio waves. 

D. Gamma rays. 

Answer = Radio waves

347.  Which among the following wave is not employed in case of remote sensing?. 

A. X-ray. 

B. Visible ray. 

C. Thermal IR. 

D. Radio waves. 

Answer = X-ray

348.  Optical mechanical scanner is used in which type of electromagnetic waves?. 

A. X-rays. 

B. Cosmic waves. 

C. Radio waves. 

D. Thermal IR. 

Answer = Thermal IR

349.  Radio waves are having the longest wavelength among all the electromagnetic waves.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

350.  Gamma rays are having a wavelength of_________. 

A. Zero. 

B. Greater than 0.03nm. 

C. Less than 0.03nm. 

D. Equal to 0.03nm. 

Answer = Less than 0.03nm

351.  Which of the following waves can be used in case of remote sensing?. 

A. UV rays. 

B. X-rays. 

C. Gamma rays. 

D. Visible rays. 

Answer = Visible rays

352.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of combination in radio waves?. 

A. Shorter wavelength – high frequency. 

B. Longer wavelength – less frequency. 

C. Shorter wavelength – less frequency. 

D. Longer wavelength – high frequency. 

Answer = Shorter wavelength – high frequency

353.  How much wave length is reflected back by the earth surface from the absorbed sun radiation?. 

A. 0.5meter. 

B. 0.5 micrometer. 

C. 0.5 centimeter. 

D. 0.5 decimeter. 

Answer = 0.5 micrometer

354.  EM waves varies from ______ to ________. 

A. Meters to nano-meters. 

B. Meters to micro-meters. 

C. Nano to micro-meters. 

D. Centimeters to nano-meters. 

Answer = Meters to nano-meters

355.  The formula of energy produced from the body can be given as_________. 

A. Q = h- c / λ. 

B. Q = h*c * λ. 

C. Q = h+ c / λ. 

D. Q = h*c / λ. 

Answer = Q = h*c / λ

356.  Strength of signal doesn't depend upon which of the following factors?. 

A. Energy flux. 

B. Dwell time. 

C. Altitude. 

D. Reflection. 

Answer = Reflection

357.   Which of the following indicates the correct set of bands operated in LISS- III satellite?. 

A. Visible ray, near IR. 

B. Near IR, radio wave. 

C. Radio wave, near IR. 

D. Far IR, near IR. 

Answer = Visible ray, near IR

358.  Energy flux may affect which of the following?. 

A. Lens. 

B. Strength of the signal. 

C. Aperture. 

D. Declination. 

Answer = Strength of the signal

359.  Which of the following can merge the imagery of LISS-III and PAN?. 

A. IRS 1B. 

B. IRS 1A. 

C. IRS 1C. 

D. IRS multi sensor. 

Answer = IRS multi sensor

360.  Which among the following indicates the correct expansion of WiFS?. 

A. Wide Field Sensor. 

B. Wireless Fidelity Sensor. 

C. Wide Fidelity Sensor. 

D. Wireless Field Sensor. 

Answer = Wide Field Sensor

361.  IRS P3 satellite uses which of the following sensors?. 

A. PAN. 

B. LISS-III. 

C. MOS. 

D. LISS-II. 

Answer = MOS

362.  PAN sensor uses two band operators.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

363.  While mapping land use and land cover, which scale is recommended?. 

A. 1: 25000. 

B. 1: 50000. 

C. 1: 250000. 

D. 31-Dec-1899. 

Answer = 1: 25000

364.  The sensor used in the digital elevation model can identify contour heights greater than_____. 

A. 5 m. 

B. 30 m. 

C. 20 m. 

D. 10 m. 

Answer = 10 m

365.  IRS 1A and 1B satellites can carry which of the following sensors?. 

A. LISS-IV. 

B. LISS-III. 

C. LISS-I. 

D. LISS-V. 

Answer = LISS-I

366.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of M's used in case of GIS?. 

A. Manipulating, monitoring, mapping, modeling. 

B. Measuring, manipulating, mapping, modeling. 

C. Measuring, monitoring, marketing, modeling. 

D. Measuring, monitoring, mapping, modeling. 

Answer = Measuring, monitoring, mapping, modeling

367.  Which of the following works involves modeling?. 

A. Tectonic plate movement. 

B. Drainage network. 

C. Roadway line. 

D. Railway line. 

Answer = Drainage network

368.  Mapping involves which of the following?. 

A. Soil details. 

B. Boundary details. 

C. Cadastral details. 

D. Population details. 

Answer = Cadastral details

369.  In which aspect of agriculture GIS is used?. 

A. Soil analysis. 

B. Seed requirement. 

C. Fertilizer. 

D. Pesticides. 

Answer = Soil analysis

370.  Which of the following software can be used in case of property tax assessment?. 

A. STAAD Pro. 

B. Revit. 

C. Remote sensing. 

D. GIS. 

Answer = GIS

371.  Which of the following software's are used for developing vehicle route?. 

A. Autodesk Revit. 

B. STAAD Pro. 

C. GIS. 

D. Remote sensing. 

Answer = GIS

372.  Population forecast can be done by using GIS.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

373.  Which of the following is not a property of coordinate in GIS?. 

A. Line of sight. 

B. Origin. 

C. Axis. 

D. Units of measurement. 

Answer = Line of sight

374.  Which of the following represents the correct set of coordinate classification in GIS?. 

A. Spherical, projected systems. 

B. Geographic, projected systems. 

C. Geographic, spherical systems. 

D. Geographic, geometric systems. 

Answer = Geographic, projected systems

375.  Longitudes are used to represent which of the following directions?. 

A. North–East. 

B. South. 

C. North. 

D. East. 

Answer = East

376.  GIS uses the information from which of the following sources?. 

A. Non- spatial information system. 

B. Spatial information system. 

C. Global information system. 

D. Position information system. 

Answer = Spatial information system

377.  Among the following ____________ can be expressed as an example of hardware component.. 

A. Keyboard. 

B. Arc GIS. 

C. Auto CAD. 

D. Digitalization. 

Answer = Keyboard

378.  Which of the following formats can be used for GIS output?. 

A. DXF. 

B. PDF. 

C. GIF. 

D. HTML. 

Answer = GIF

379.  In the process of GIS, digitalization is done for better output.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

380.  Which among the following is not related to GIS software's?. 

A. CAD. 

B. Arc GIS. 

C. Arc View. 

D. STAAD Pro. 

Answer = STAAD Pro

381.  Among the following, which do not come under the components of GIS?. 

A. Hardware. 

B. Software. 

C. Compiler. 

D. Data. 

Answer = Compiler

382.  Data can be shared in the process of GIS.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

383.  Which of the following doesn't determine the capability of GIS?. 

A. Defining a map. 

B. Representing cartographic feature. 

C. Retrieving data. 

D. Transferring data. 

Answer = Transferring data

384.  Which of the following acts a benefit of GIS?. 

A. Maintaining geo spatial data. 

B. Data sharing. 

C. Accurate data information. 

D. Presence of data retrieval service. 

Answer = Maintaining geo spatial data

385.  Which among the following is a server based hardware platform of GIS?. 

A. Autodesk Revit. 

B. STAAD Pro. 

C. Arc GIS. 

D. Google-maps. 

Answer = Google-maps

386.  Which of the following can be used for representing a real world feature on two dimensional surfaces?. 

A. Plan. 

B. Drawing. 

C. Scale. 

D. Map. 

Answer = Map

387.  Which of the following sets represent the correct set of map classification?. 

A. Cadastral, thematic. 

B. Thematic, geographic. 

C. Cadastral, geographic. 

D. Geographic, topographic. 

Answer = Cadastral, thematic

388.  Which type of map can explain a particular feature in detail?. 

A. Cadastral map. 

B. Topographic map. 

C. Thematic map. 

D. Geographic map. 

Answer = Thematic map

389.  If the number on scale is less then it represents a large scale map.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

390.  In which of the following ways, meridians are projected in cylindrical projection?. 

A. Mathematically. 

B. Geometrically. 

C. Horizontally. 

D. Vertically. 

Answer = Geometrically

391.  Which type of map projection is used in the preparation of atlas?. 

A. Cylindrical projection. 

B. UTM projection. 

C. Poly conic projection system. 

D. Lambert- Azimuthal equal area projection. 

Answer = Lambert- Azimuthal equal area projection

392.  The entire earth surface is divided into zones in which type of map projection?. 

A. Poly conic projection system. 

B. Cylindrical projection. 

C. UTM projection. 

D. Lambert- Azimuthal equal area projection. 

Answer = UTM projection

393.  Which of the following can also be termed as un projected co-ordinate system?. 

A. Lambert- Azimuthal equal area projection. 

B. Latitude – longitude geographic co-ordinate system. 

C. Poly conic projection system. 

D. Cylindrical projection. 

Answer = Latitude – longitude geographic co-ordinate system

394.  Determine the scale of the map if the distance on the map is given as 2cm which is equal to 1km on the ground.. 

A. 1: 50000. 

B. 3.513888888888889. 

C. 1: 100000. 

D. 0.3888888888888889. 

Answer = 1: 50000

395.   Which of the following is not a method of representation of the scale of the map?. 

A. Ratio method. 

B. Verbal method. 

C. Geographical method. 

D. Non-verbal method. 

Answer = Non-verbal method

396.  Which of the following doesn't indicate a topology error?. 

A. Polygonal features. 

B. Gaps between polygons. 

C. Silver polygons. 

D. Unclosed polygons. 

Answer = Silver polygons

397.  Which of the following acts as a source of inaccuracy?. 

A. Format of data. 

B. Silver polygon. 

C. Unclosed polygon. 

D. Dongle nodes. 

Answer = Format of data

398.  Among the errors occurring in GIS, which can cause a drastic change or fail the entire process?. 

A. Format of data. 

B. Unclosed polygons. 

C. Dongle nodes. 

D. Silver polygons. 

Answer = Silver polygons

399.  Which of the following is not a category of error?. 

A. Change in format. 

B. Areal cover. 

C. Map scale. 

D. Density of observation. 

Answer = Change in format

400.  Age of data can act as a source of error.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

401.  Which of the following can be represented as an example of format error?. 

A. Silver polygons. 

B. Dongle nodes. 

C. Changing from raster to vector. 

D. Areal cover. 

Answer = Changing from raster to vector

402.  Silver polygons occur due to excessive overlaying.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

403.  Dongle nodes can be removed by___________. 

A. Undo. 

B. Eraser. 

C. Behind shoot. 

D. Over shoot. 

Answer = Over shoot

404.  Study of geometric objects will come under the category of______________. 

A. Surveying. 

B. Cartography. 

C. Surface geometry. 

D. Topology. 

Answer = Topology

405.  Which type of data set is not used in GIS related software's?. 

A. Vertex. 

B. Point. 

C. Poly line. 

D. polygon. 

Answer = Vertex

406.  Among the available formats, which is most commonly used in case of GIS?. 

A. GIF. 

B. TIFF. 

C. JPEG. 

D. DXF. 

Answer = TIFF

407.  The point data feature can be used to represent __________. 

A. Location. 

B. Area. 

C. 3D area. 

D. Volume. 

Answer = Location

408.  The polygonal data feature uses which of the following data format?. 

A. Scientific character. 

B. Math. 

C. Character. 

D. Integer. 

Answer = Integer

409.  Which of the following justifies the usage of topology?. 

A. Terrain of the area. 

B. Geometry of the model. 

C. Climatic conditions. 

D. Atmospheric conditions. 

Answer = Geometry of the model

410.  Spatial relationship can be established by using GIS.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

411.  Which feature of GIS can share the boundary of the polygon?. 

A. Polygons. 

B. Poly lines. 

C. Dongle nodes. 

D. Silver polygons. 

Answer = Polygons

412.  Which of the following indicate topological primitive?. 

A. Poly line. 

B. Point. 

C. Node. 

D. Polygon. 

Answer = Node

413.  Which of the following acts as a key to GIS?. 

A. Topology. 

B. Platform. 

C. Software. 

D. Terrain. 

Answer = Topology

414.  Which of the following indicates the correct set for the division of map numbering?. 

A. CIM, IAC series. 

B. CIM, IAF. 

C. IAC, CIA. 

D. IAF, IAC. 

Answer = CIM, IAC series

415.  The CIM series can be used in __________scale.. 

A. 1:2,50,000. 

B. 1:50,000. 

C. 1:25,000. 

D. 0.11527777777777777. 

Answer = 0.11527777777777777

416.  Which of the following processes is involved in CIM series?. 

A. Decoupled integration. 

B. Integration. 

C. Decoupled differentiation. 

D. Differentiation. 

Answer = Decoupled integration

417.  Which of the following is the right expansion of CIM?. 

A. Commerce Information Model. 

B. Common Information Model. 

C. Common Informational Modem. 

D. Common Information Modem. 

Answer = Common Information Model

418.  Which of the following is used in CIM?. 

A. STAAD Pro. 

B. Remote sensing. 

C. GIS. 

D. Revit. 

Answer = GIS

419.  What is the common language interpreted in the CIM system?. 

A. Spanish. 

B. French. 

C. Italian. 

D. English. 

Answer = English

420.  CIM was adopted by which of the following commissions?. 

A. ICE. 

B. IEI. 

C. ICI. 

D. IEC. 

Answer = IEC

421.  Which of the following is not one of the software's of GIS?. 

A. Arc GIS. 

B. RS GIS. 

C. Q GIS. 

D. Super GIS. 

Answer = RS GIS

422.  ESB integration model is developed based on __________. 

A. CIM series. 

B. GIS. 

C. Remote sensing. 

D. Arc GIS. 

Answer = CIM series

423.  Swiss Alps farming can be monitored by using ________. 

A. Revit. 

B. Remote sensing. 

C. GIS. 

D. Auto CAD. 

Answer = GIS

424.  Which of the following is used for shaping the velocity of the satellite orbit?. 

A. User segment. 

B. Control segment. 

C. Ground segment. 

D. Space segment. 

Answer = Control segment

425.  Which type of band can be used in the control segment?. 

A. N-band. 

B. M-band. 

C. K-band. 

D. S-band. 

Answer = S-band

426.  Which among the following describes the usage of the S – band?. 

A. Merging wave length. 

B. Measuring wavelength. 

C. Duplex information transmission. 

D. Identifying signals. 

Answer = Duplex information transmission

427.  For coupling globally distributed ground assets which among the following can be used?. 

A. S-band. 

B. L-band. 

C. K-band. 

D. M-band. 

Answer = S-band

428.  Which of the following indicates the operations performed by the control segment?. 

A. Identifying bands. 

B. Merging signals. 

C. Controlling space vehicle. 

D. Determining wavelengths. 

Answer = Controlling space vehicle

429.  Which of the following is not included in the Operation Control segment?. 

A. Master control station. 

B. Alternate master control station. 

C. Commands. 

D. Program. 

Answer = Program

430.  Which of the following can be used to generate navigational messages?. 

A. Control station. 

B. User segment. 

C. Space segment. 

D. Delivery segment. 

Answer = Control station

431.  Ground antennas can be communicated using __________. 

A. N-band. 

B. K-band. 

C. S-band. 

D. M-band. 

Answer = S-band

432.  Satellite segment receives which of the following information?. 

A. Signals. 

B. Uplink control. 

C. Location. 

D. Gamma rays. 

Answer = Uplink control

433.  Which of the following satellites can use OCS?. 

A. LISS-III. 

B. IRS-1B. 

C. IRS-1A. 

D. IIF. 

Answer = IIF

434.  Which of the following is necessary for further processing in code based positioning?. 

A. Frequency. 

B. Carrier wave. 

C. Receiver clock error. 

D. Satellite. 

Answer = Receiver clock error

435.  Two satellites are enough for finding accurate position of the object.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

436.  Carrier phase uses the principle of ____________. 

A. Compass. 

B. Theodolite. 

C. EDM. 

D. Traversing. 

Answer = EDM

437.  Which of the following can be identified as the correct set for position fixing method?. 

A. Carrier phase, relative positioning. 

B. Code phase, absolute positioning. 

C. Absolute positioning, relative positioning. 

D. Code phase, carrier phase. 

Answer = Code phase, carrier phase

438.  Cycle slip occurs due to change in____________. 

A. Wave length. 

B. Phase. 

C. Frequency. 

D. Velocity. 

Answer = Phase

439.  Kinematic positioning will come under which of the following classification?. 

A. Relative positioning. 

B. Absolute positioning. 

C. Resection method. 

D. Carrier wave method. 

Answer = Relative positioning

440.  Base receiver is kept stationary in which of the following operations?. 

A. Stop-and-go positioning. 

B. Kinematic positioning. 

C. Fast static positioning. 

D. Static positioning. 

Answer = Fast static positioning

441.  If the connection of the number of satellites decreases, the accuracy of the positioning increases.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

442.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of GPS data classification?. 

A. Almanac and ephemeris. 

B. Ephemeris and user segment. 

C. Ephemeris and space segment. 

D. Almanac and user segment. 

Answer = Almanac and ephemeris

443.  The GPS time must be very accurate.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

444.  Which of the following can be affected by atmospheric path disturbances?. 

A. Modern GPS surveying. 

B. Conventional GPS. 

C. Absolute positioning. 

D. Resection method. 

Answer = Modern GPS surveying

445.  Which among the following can be described as an application of pseudo ranging?. 

A. Computation of distance between satellite and user. 

B. Computation of distance between GPS antenna and satellite. 

C. Computation of distance between GPS antenna and user. 

D. Computation of distance between satellite and object. 

Answer = Computation of distance between GPS antenna and satellite

446.  By using pseudo ranging method, two dimensional and three dimensional GPS positions can be located.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

447.  Which of the following error occurs due to atmospheric conditions?. 

A. Natural error. 

B. User error. 

C. Propagation error. 

D. Signal multipath error. 

Answer = Signal multipath error

448.  Which of the following is not used in the tracking system?. 

A. Multiple frequency. 

B. Dual frequency. 

C. Single frequency. 

D. Military navigation. 

Answer = Multiple frequency

449.  Which of the following doesn't belong to the relative positioning techniques?. 

A. Real-time kinematic technique. 

B. Viscous GPS technique. 

C. Kinematic GPS surveying technique. 

D. Differential GPS technique. 

Answer = Viscous GPS technique

450.  Which of the following classes of positioning technique possess high precision?. 

A. GPS. 

B. Viscous technique. 

C. Real time technique. 

D. Kinematic technique. 

Answer = Kinematic technique

451.  Which among the following indicates the correct set of static GPS surveying technology classification?. 

A. Long and normal base lines. 

B. Medium and short baselines. 

C. Long and short baselines. 

D. Normal and short base lines. 

Answer = Long and short baselines

452.  What will be the length of the base line in case of short baseline method of GPS surveying?. 

A. Less than 50km. 

B. Greater than 50km. 

C. Less than 2km. 

D. Greater than 100km. 

Answer = Less than 50km

453.  Which of the following is considered as modern GPS technology?. 

A. GIS. 

B. GPS mode. 

C. Instantaneous mode. 

D. Kinematic positioning technique. 

Answer = Kinematic positioning technique

454.  In pseudo ranging, travel time is measured by___________. 

A. PRN code. 

B. Noise code. 

C. SPS. 

D. GPS. 

Answer = PRN code

455.  Satellite to user range can be calculated by using which of the following methods?. 

A. Relative positioning. 

B. Absolute positioning. 

C. Carrier wave. 

D. Pseudo ranging. 

Answer = Pseudo ranging

456.  For obtaining relative time of transmission and reception of signals, it is required to calculate clock offset.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

457.  GPS can also be known as__________. 

A. GOS. 

B. Arc GIS. 

C. GIS. 

D. NavStar. 

Answer = NavStar

458.  Determine the distance between satellite and user if the time difference can be calculated as 3 min.. 

A. 54*1019 m. 

B. 45*102 m. 

C. 54*109 m. 

D. 45*109 m. 

Answer = 54*109 m

459.  In order to determine the satellite to user range, which of the following is exceptionally required?. 

A. Time difference of polarized signals. 

B. Time difference of signals. 

C. Time difference of refracted signals. 

D. Time difference of reflected signals. 

Answer = Time difference of signals

460.  Almanac contains information about__________. 

A. Status of the signals. 

B. Status of the reflection. 

C. Status of the satellites. 

D. Status of the aperture. 

Answer = Status of the satellites

461.  Trilateration is a plane surveying method.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

462.  Accuracy of the position through can be influenced by ____________. 

A. Refraction. 

B. Reflection. 

C. Signal strength. 

D. Position of satellite. 

Answer = Position of satellite

463.  Error in altitude will be twice the horizontal error.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

464.  Which of the following is having same principle as that of determining the position in GPS?. 

A. Compass. 

B. Traversing. 

C. Trisection. 

D. Resection. 

Answer = Resection

465.  Among the following, which indicates the correct set of methods followed for fixing position?. 

A. Pseudo ranging, absolute positioning. 

B. Carrier wave, pseudo ranging. 

C. Absolute positioning, relative positioning. 

D. Carrier wave, absolute positioning. 

Answer = Carrier wave, pseudo ranging

466.  Which is the main parameter used in pseudo ranging?. 

A. Time. 

B. Distance. 

C. Velocity. 

D. Frequency. 

Answer = Time

467.  GPS user solution depends on which of the following?. 

A. Absolute positioning. 

B. Satellite vehicle. 

C. Space vehicle. 

D. Relative positioning. 

Answer = Space vehicle

468.  Satellite generates which type of signals?. 

A. Visible rays. 

B. X-rays. 

C. Cosmic waves. 

D. Radio waves. 

Answer = Radio waves

469.  Which of the following indicates the principle of GPS?. 

A. Resection. 

B. Trilateration. 

C. Trisection. 

D. Traversing. 

Answer = Trilateration

470.  Which among the following is used to locate an object?. 

A. GPS. 

B. GIS. 

C. RS. 

D. IRS. 

Answer = GPS

471.  Which of the following can indicate the correct set of GPS segments?. 

A. Navigation, space. 

B. User, navigation. 

C. Control, user. 

D. Control, navigation. 

Answer = Control, user

472.  Which of the following segments can use GPS receiver?. 

A. Navigation segment. 

B. Space segment. 

C. Control segment. 

D. User segment. 

Answer = User segment

473.  Which of the following indicate the functioning of the Space segment?. 

A. Navigational signals. 

B. Space signals. 

C. User signals. 

D. Control signals. 

Answer = Navigational signals

474.  Which among the following is more accurate in its output?. 

A. Absolute positioning. 

B. Resection method. 

C. Modern GPS surveying. 

D. Conventional GPS method. 

Answer = Conventional GPS method

475.  Absolute positioning is not useful in precise GPS.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

476.  Precise positioning service is having an accuracy range of____________. 

A. 1-5 m. 

B. 5-9 m. 

C. 10-12 m. 

D. 15-20 m. 

Answer = 10-12 m

477.  Which of the following indicates the correct set of classification for absolute positioning?. 

A. Carrier wave, pseudo range. 

B. Pseudo range, SPS. 

C. SPS, carrier wave. 

D. Absolute positioning, SPS. 

Answer = Carrier wave, pseudo range

478.  Which of the following process is adopted in case of navigation system?. 

A. SPS. 

B. Carrier wave. 

C. Relative positioning. 

D. Pseudo ranging. 

Answer = Pseudo ranging

479.  Which process can obtain more accuracy in position?. 

A. Carrier wave method. 

B. Absolute positioning. 

C. Relative positioning. 

D. Resection method. 

Answer = Relative positioning

480.  Which of the following will affect the accuracy of the GPS positioning?. 

A. Receiver station. 

B. Strength of signal. 

C. Position of satellite. 

D. Atomic clock. 

Answer = Receiver station

481.  Which among the following can act as a cause wrong GPS tracking?. 

A. Refraction of signal. 

B. Strength of signal. 

C. Atomic clock. 

D. Reflection of satellite signals. 

Answer = Reflection of satellite signals

482.  The accuracy speed of the GPS depends on ______________. 

A. Reflection of signal. 

B. Signal blockage. 

C. Refraction of signal. 

D. Position of satellite. 

Answer = Signal blockage

483.  The clock used in GPS will synchronize to__________. 

A. Greenwich. 

B. ITC. 

C. UTC. 

D. IS. 

Answer = UTC

484.  Which of the following doesn't describe the use of hydrographic surveying?. 

A. Laying an Alignment. 

B. Making underground investigations. 

C. Nautical charts for navigation. 

D. Establishing mean sea level. 

Answer = Establishing mean sea level

485.  The process of measuring depth below the water surface is called_______. 

A. Sounding. 

B. Chaining. 

C. Traversing. 

D. Compass traversing. 

Answer = Sounding

486.  Which among the following can be possessed by the horizontal control?. 

A. Chaining. 

B. Triangulation. 

C. Theodolite. 

D. Compass. 

Answer = Triangulation

487.  Transit tape is used in case of small survey.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

488.  Gauge readings are obtained after_______________. 

A. Compass survey. 

B. Chaining. 

C. Sounding. 

D. Traversing. 

Answer = Sounding

489.  Which of the following doesn't come under the category of shore line survey?. 

A. Delineation of shore line. 

B. Location of shore details. 

C. Determination of the low and high water lines. 

D. Sounding. 

Answer = Sounding

490.  Which among the following doesn't indicate the purpose of sounding?. 

A. Volume measurements. 

B. Nautical charts for navigation. 

C. Making sub-aqueous investigations. 

D. Measurement of area. 

Answer = Volume measurements

491.  What will be the salinity of the sea water if the temperature of the sea water is about 45˚C and the velocity of sound is given as 1678 m/s?. 

A. 314.62. 

B. 214.62. 

C. 134.62. 

D. 143.62. 

Answer = 134.62

492.  Among the following, which is having more prominence while conducting sounding?. 

A. Labor. 

B. Signal. 

C. Sounding pole. 

D. Suitable climatic conditions. 

Answer = Sounding pole

493.  What is length of the sounding rod or pole?. 

A. 7-8 m. 

B. 5-8 m. 

C. 10-18 m. 

D. 15-18 m. 

Answer = 5-8 m

494.  The velocity of sound in sea can be determined by ____________. 

A. Refraction. 

B. Reflection. 

C. Polarization. 

D. Sounding machine. 

Answer = Sounding machine

495.  Determine the velocity of the sound in sea water if the surface temperature can be given as 32˚C and the salinity is given as 2.43.. 

A. 1590.6 m/s. 

B. 1509.6 m/s. 

C. 5109.6 m/s. 

D. 1590.9 m/s. 

Answer = 1509.6 m/s

496. Find the value of the surface temperature, if the velocity of the sound in sea water can be given as 2000 m/s and the salinity as 5.32.. 

A. 57˚C. 

B. 75˚C. 

C. 52˚C. 

D. 72˚C. 

Answer = 57˚C

497.  River gauge is used to measure _______. 

A. Still level. 

B. Water level. 

C. Turbulence. 

D. Current. 

Answer = Water level

498.  Which of the following instrument uses rating curve?. 

A. River gauge. 

B. Rain gauge. 

C. Tipping bucket. 

D. Marine gauge. 

Answer = River gauge

499.  Rating curve can be used for __________. 

A. Reflecting signal. 

B. Determining strength of signal. 

C. Stage measurements. 

D. Polarization of signal. 

Answer = Stage measurements

500.  Which of the following constructions are used in case of the application of river gauge?. 

A. Culverts. 

B. Bridges. 

C. Dams. 

D. Weirs and notches. 

Answer = Weirs and notches

501.  Which of the following equipments is used in stream gauge?. 

A. Stilling well. 

B. Ultrasonic device. 

C. Par shall fume. 

D. Stage encoder. 

Answer = Stilling well

502.  Which of the following doesn't come under the classification of water level gauge?. 

A. Ultrasonic device. 

B. Par shall fume. 

C. Stage encoder. 

D. Electro-magnetic gauge. 

Answer = Par shall fume

503.  Current meter is used in case of __________. 

A. Ultrasonic device. 

B. Staff gauge. 

C. Stage encoder. 

D. Electro-magnetic gauge. 

Answer = Electro-magnetic gauge

504.  Which of the following classification of water level gauge can measure the water level?. 

A. Stage encoder. 

B. Electro-magnetic gauge. 

C. Ultrasonic device. 

D. Staff gauge. 

Answer = Ultrasonic device

505.  A potentiometer is used in stage encoder.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

506.  Which of the following is used for suspending a hydro grapher?. 

A. Cloth tape. 

B. Cable ways. 

C. Wires. 

D. Suspenders. 

Answer = Cable ways

507.  Rain gauge is used for ________. 

A. Hydrological survey. 

B. Measuring precipitation. 

C. Marine survey. 

D. River survey. 

Answer = Measuring precipitation

508.  Rain gauge is expressed in terms of _________. 

A. Decimeters. 

B. Meters. 

C. Centimeters. 

D. Millimeters. 

Answer = Millimeters

509.  Calculate the total rainfall in an interval, where volume of the bucket is taken as 24cu. m and time interval N = 3.. 

A. 72cu. m. 

B. 2cu. m. 

C. 27cu. m. 

D. 72sq. m. 

Answer = 72cu. m

510.  Find the least count of the instrument used in case of rainfall determination, if the volume of the bucket is 50cu. m and the area of the funnel is about 21 sq. m.. 

A. 3.38 m. 

B. 2.83 m. 

C. 2.38 m. 

D. 4.38 m. 

Answer = 2.38 m

511.  What would be the rate of rainfall if the value of N can be given as 2 and the difference in time can be given as 24 sec with the L.C of the instrument as 1m?. 

A. 50m-sec. 

B. 48m-sec. 

C. 42m-sec. 

D. 49m-sec. 

Answer = 48m-sec

512.  Tipping bucket used in the rain gauge will turn under the action of ___________. 

A. Battery. 

B. Hand movement. 

C. Gravity. 

D. Motor. 

Answer = Gravity

513.  Which of the following rain gauge equipment is used in case of remote areas?. 

A. Reflective rain gauge. 

B. Acoustic rain gauge. 

C. Optical rain gauge. 

D. Tipping bucket. 

Answer = Tipping bucket

514.  Rain gauge is also known as __________. 

A. Udometer. 

B. Opto meter. 

C. Luda meter. 

D. Rio meter. 

Answer = Udometer

515.  Which of the following will not come under the classification of rain gauge?. 

A. Tipping bucket gauge.. 

B. Reflective rain gauge. 

C. Optical rain gauge. 

D. Acoustic rain gauge. 

Answer = Reflective rain gauge

516.  Acoustic rain gauge can also be known as__________. 

A. Hydro gauge. 

B. Hydro remote. 

C. Hydrophone. 

D. Hydro cable. 

Answer = Hydrophone

517.  Which of the following survey is adopted while inspecting a vessel and the systems of boats?. 

A. Marine survey. 

B. Rain gauge survey. 

C. River gauge survey. 

D. Land survey. 

Answer = Marine survey

518.  Which of the following devices can be used in marine survey?. 

A. RS. 

B. GPS. 

C. GIS. 

D. RMS digital multi-meter. 

Answer = RMS digital multi-meter

519.  The time range of marine survey can be given as________. 

A. 3-18 hrs. 

B. 2-8 hrs. 

C. 3-8 hrs. 

D. 13-18 hrs. 

Answer = 3-8 hrs

520.  Time range of the marine survey will depend on _________. 

A. Strength of signal. 

B. Size of boat. 

C. Atomic clock. 

D. GPS location. 

Answer = Size of boat

521.  Yacht survey involves in ________. 

A. Detailed inspection of the boat. 

B. Detailed inspection of the boat. 

C. Detailed inspection of the boat. 

D. Detailed inspection of the boat. 

Answer = Detailed inspection of the boat

522.  Which of the following will not come under the marine surveying category?. 

A. Cargo survey. 

B. Water survey. 

C. Yacht survey. 

D. Machinery survey. 

Answer = Water survey

523.  Which of the following indicates the necessity of the marine surveying?. 

A. To have an idea about the still water features. 

B. To have an idea about the water features. 

C. To have an idea about the ground water features. 

D. To have an idea about the underwater features. 

Answer = To have an idea about the underwater features

524.  The problems occurred in the boat can be mitigated by _________. 

A. Rain survey. 

B. Vehicle survey. 

C. Marine survey. 

D. Water survey. 

Answer = Marine survey

525.  Cargo surveying involves in ___________. 

A. Calculation of the cargo's efficiency. 

B. Calculation of the cargo's volume. 

C. Calculation of the cargo's area. 

D. Calculation of the cargo's turbulence. 

Answer = Calculation of the cargo's volume

526.  Marine surveying is a necessary in case of boat designing.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

527.  Which of the following can be identified as the objective of water supply scheme?. 

A. Chlorination of water. 

B. Treat water. 

C. Safe water supply. 

D. Ionization of water. 

Answer = Safe water supply

528.  Which of the following indicates the component of a water supply scheme?. 

A. Impure water. 

B. Chlorination of water. 

C. Sub surface water. 

D. Intake of the water. 

Answer = Intake of the water

529.  Surface water can act as a source of water in water supply scheme.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

530.  While considering the design period, which must be given more priority?. 

A. Area of land. 

B. Population. 

C. Usage of water. 

D. Arrangement of pipes. 

Answer = Population

531.  The design period of storage reservoir can be given as _________. 

A. 50 yr. 

B. 20 yr. 

C. 30 yr. 

D. 10 yr. 

Answer = 50 yr

532.  Which of the following can be designated as an intake structure?. 

A. Culvert. 

B. River. 

C. Dam. 

D. Reservoir. 

Answer = Reservoir

533.  Which type of water is generally used in the treatment of water?. 

A. Chlorinated water. 

B. Treated water. 

C. Raw water. 

D. Sulphated water. 

Answer = Raw water

534.  Which of the following does not act as a major factor that effects per capita demand?. 

A. Human activity. 

B. Industrial activities. 

C. Usage of water. 

D. Placement of pipe. 

Answer = Industrial activities

535.  The amount of water required for 1 percent per day is determined as ___________. 

A. Daily demand. 

B. Monthly demand. 

C. Annual demand. 

D. Per capita demand. 

Answer = Per capita demand

536.  Which of the following can act as a type of variation in water demand?. 

A. Monthly variation. 

B. Annual variation. 

C. Crop variation. 

D. 10 year variation. 

Answer = Monthly variation

537.  Which survey involves in the collection of information about the elevation of points?. 

A. Topographic survey. 

B. Marine survey. 

C. Township survey. 

D. Road survey. 

Answer = Topographic survey

538.  Which of the following describes the usage of the topographic survey?. 

A. Sanitary line maps. 

B. Water line maps. 

C. Electric line maps. 

D. Topographic maps. 

Answer = Topographic maps

539.  Among the following, which is not a principle of the topographic survey?. 

A. Establishing horizontal and vertical control. 

B. Orientation of each survey. 

C. Orientation of only main station. 

D. Work with most accurate methods. 

Answer = Orientation of only main station

540.  Horizontal distance measurement can be done by using ________. 

A. Chaining. 

B. Tachymetry. 

C. Theodolite survey. 

D. Compass survey. 

Answer = Tachymetry

541.  Difference in elevation levels can be determined by using ____________. 

A. Chaining. 

B. Vertical staff. 

C. Leveling staff. 

D. Level telescope. 

Answer = Level telescope

542.  Which of the following doesn't include in the method of the topological survey?. 

A. Vertical distance. 

B. Horizontal distance. 

C. Direction. 

D. Difference in elevation. 

Answer = Vertical distance

543.  Vernier scale is used in which of the following methodology?. 

A. Horizontal angle. 

B. Direction. 

C. Vertical angle. 

D. Marine survey. 

Answer = Direction

544.  Which of the following is not a type of horizontal angle used in case of topographic survey?. 

A. Bearing. 

B. Azimuth. 

C. Horizontal angle. 

D. Deflection angle. 

Answer = Horizontal angle

545.  Open traverse is used in case of topological survey.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

546.  Shape of the earth can act as an error in case of topological survey.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

547.  Which of the following must be considered while conducting a road survey?. 

A. Density. 

B. Alignment of the curves. 

C. Specific gravity. 

D. Atmospheric conidtion. 

Answer = Alignment of the curves

548.  Skid resistance is calculated while conducting road survey.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

549.  Which of the following indicates the objective of road survey?. 

A. Specific gravity. 

B. Density. 

C. Pavement design. 

D. Detailed layout of road way. 

Answer = Detailed layout of road way

550.  Density of the road is not taken into consideration.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

551.  Which of the following will come under the manual method of road survey?. 

A. GIS. 

B. Walking and windshield survey. 

C. Walking survey. 

D. Windshield survey. 

Answer = Walking survey

552.  Which of the following software's can be useful while conducting road survey?. 

A. GIS. 

B. RS. 

C. STAAD Pro. 

D. Revit. 

Answer = GIS

553.  Which of the following road survey method is a time consuming method?. 

A. Walking and windshield survey. 

B. Walking survey. 

C. Windshield survey. 

D. GIS. 

Answer = Walking survey

554.  Which of the following procedure involves both technological and human interpretation?. 

A. GIS. 

B. Windshield survey. 

C. Walking survey. 

D. Walking and windshield survey. 

Answer = Walking and windshield survey

555.  Among the interpretation methods available, which is opted as the best?. 

A. STAAD Pro. 

B. RS. 

C. GIS. 

D. Walking survey. 

Answer = GIS

556.  Which of the following is included in the road project survey report?. 

A. Location. 

B. Terrain. 

C. Slope. 

D. Gradient. 

Answer = Location

557.  Tunneling is required in case of ____________. 

A. Laying pavement. 

B. Laying road. 

C. On ground passage. 

D. Underground passage. 

Answer = Underground passage

558.  The line at which the tunnel wall breaks from sloping outward can be given as _________. 

A. Spring line. 

B. Oval line. 

C. Centre line. 

D. Middle line. 

Answer = Spring line

559.  Which of the following should be considered while aligning a tunnel?. 

A. Atmospheric conditions. 

B. Hydrological conditions. 

C. Climatic conditions. 

D. Surface limits. 

Answer = Hydrological conditions

560.  Among the following, which doesn't belong to tunnel classification?. 

A. Firm ground. 

B. Running ground. 

C. Rocky ground. 

D. Soft ground. 

Answer = Rocky ground

561.  Which method can be adopted if full face excavation is not possible?. 

A. Back bearing method. 

B. Plotting. 

C. Trenching. 

D. Benching. 

Answer = Benching

562.  Among the following, which can be adopted for providing support for soft strata?. 

A. Bents of aluminum. 

B. Bents of iridium. 

C. Bents of steel. 

D. Bents of plastic. 

Answer = Bents of steel

563.  A steel cylinder which is pushed in the soft soil is determined as ________. 

A. Jar born. 

B. Shield. 

C. Rod. 

D. Pole. 

Answer = Shield

564.  Which method can be adopted in case of rock tunneling?. 

A. Full face method. 

B. Benching. 

C. Tracing. 

D. Back bearing method. 

Answer = Full face method

565.  Which of the following can act as an alternative for blasting?. 

A. Tunneling. 

B. Continuous blasting. 

C. Sequential blasting. 

D. Fire-setting. 

Answer = Fire-setting

566.  Which of the following involves in the sequence of rocky strata?. 

A. Marking profile. 

B. Placing rocks. 

C. Improving foul gases. 

D. Recording values. 

Answer = Marking profile

567.  Which of the following is a classification of irrigation survey?. 

A. Direct method. 

B. Weir method. 

C. Notch method. 

D. River method. 

Answer = Direct method

568.  The area that can be irrigated by a canal can be determined as ___________. 

A. Canal area. 

B. Paddy area. 

C. Irrigated area. 

D. Commanded area. 

Answer = Commanded area

569.  Percentage of irrigation proposed to be irrigated annually yields ________. 

A. Density of irrigation. 

B. Intensity of irrigation. 

C. S.G of irrigation. 

D. Extent of irrigation. 

Answer = Intensity of irrigation

570.  Storage irrigation method is also known as__________. 

A. Weir method. 

B. Direct method. 

C. Indirect method. 

D. Notch method. 

Answer = Indirect method

571.  Which of the following methods is adopted in case of flow of excess water?. 

A. Weir method. 

B. Traverse irrigation method. 

C. Direct irrigation method. 

D. Storage irrigation method. 

Answer = Storage irrigation method

572.  Which of the following indicates a storage structure?. 

A. Dam. 

B. Weir. 

C. Notch. 

D. Culvert. 

Answer = Dam

573.  Which of the following can be used as a diversion structure?. 

A. Dam. 

B. Barrage. 

C. Reservoir. 

D. Culvert. 

Answer = Barrage

574.  Which of the following can be indicated as the classification of the surface irrigation method?. 

A. Gradient method. 

B. Irrigation method. 

C. Flooding method. 

D. Drowning method. 

Answer = Flooding method

575.  A small basin is adopted in case of ____________. 

A. Sandy soil. 

B. Clay soil. 

C. Rocky soil. 

D. Metamorphic soil. 

Answer = Sandy soil

576.  Flat land can adopt large basins.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

577.  Which of the following can fulfill the objective of the airport survey?. 

A. Electric line map. 

B. Characteristics of soil. 

C. Water line map. 

D. Cable line map. 

Answer = Characteristics of soil

578.  Which of the following comes under the category of airport survey?. 

A. Cable lines. 

B. Electric lines. 

C. Poles. 

D. Drainage survey. 

Answer = Drainage survey

579.  Which of the following data is used in case of meteorological survey?. 

A. Fog intensity. 

B. Soil. 

C. Rock. 

D. Rain. 

Answer = Fog intensity

580.  Which among the following will help in the designing of pavement and airport drainage system?. 

A. Marine survey. 

B. Topographical survey. 

C. Meteorological survey. 

D. Soil survey. 

Answer = Meteorological survey

581.  Determination of best location of airport can be done by _____________. 

A. Topographical survey. 

B. Marine survey. 

C. Soil survey. 

D. Airport survey. 

Answer = Soil survey

582.  Which among the following comes under the category of soil sampling method?. 

A. Deep boring. 

B. Test pits. 

C. Probing. 

D. Workability. 

Answer = Workability

583.  Which of the following indicates the characteristic of the soil to be present for any construction?. 

A. Color of soil. 

B. Density. 

C. Specific gravity. 

D. Durability. 

Answer = Color of soil

584.  The study of features like hills is done in case of ________________. 

A. Township survey. 

B. Topographical survey. 

C. Marine survey. 

D. Airport survey. 

Answer = Topographical survey

585.  Which of the following will come under the preliminary information for airport survey?. 

A. Climatic conditions. 

B. Surveying methods. 

C. Area of the map. 

D. Directions. 

Answer = Directions

586.  Cross wind is perpendicular to the direction of travel.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

587.  Which of the following can be considered as inland water transportation?. 

A. Transportation by river. 

B. Transportation by culvert. 

C. Transportation on bridge. 

D. Transportation by barrage. 

Answer = Transportation by river

588.  Which of the following can act as an advantage of water transportation?. 

A. Tides. 

B. Less development. 

C. Costly mode of transportation. 

D. Cheap mode of transportation. 

Answer = Cheap mode of transportation

589.  Goods can be transported within less time.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

590.  A basin which can protect water well from the actions of wind and waves can be designated as___________. 

A. Quarry. 

B. Basin. 

C. Harbor. 

D. Port. 

Answer = Harbor

591.  Which of the following is considered in case stable floating condition of ship?. 

A. Vertical measurement. 

B. Horizontal measurement. 

C. Linear measurement. 

D. Draft. 

Answer = Draft

592.  Which of the following is used as a basis for the classification of harbor?. 

A. Protection. 

B. Placement. 

C. Area. 

D. Climatic condition. 

Answer = Protection

593.  Which of the following will not come under the category of harbor classification?. 

A. Natural harbor. 

B. Semi artificial harbor. 

C. Artificial harbor. 

D. Semi natural harbor. 

Answer = Semi artificial harbor

594.  Bombay harbor will come under the classification of ____________. 

A. Semi natural harbor. 

B. Artificial harbor. 

C. Natural harbor. 

D. Semi artificial harbor. 

Answer = Natural harbor

595.  On what basis a harbor can be designated as natural roadstead?. 

A. Semi artificial harbor. 

B. Artificial harbor. 

C. Navigable channel. 

D. Semi natural harbor. 

Answer = Semi natural harbor

596.  Which of the following harbor areas are having artificial protection?. 

A. Vishakhapatnam port. 

B. Mumbai port. 

C. Kakinada port. 

D. Yanam port. 

Answer = Vishakhapatnam port

597.  Township survey is also known as________. 

A. Congressional township. 

B. Harbor survey. 

C. Land survey. 

D. Airport survey. 

Answer = Congressional township

598.  Which of the following indicates the purpose of the township survey?. 

A. Establishing boundaries for harbor. 

B. Establishing boundaries for government. 

C. Establishing boundaries for public. 

D. Establishing boundaries for individual land ownership. 

Answer = Establishing boundaries for individual land ownership

599.  Among the following, which map is necessary for the establishment of the township?. 

A. Environmental map. 

B. Terrain map. 

C. Property map. 

D. Area map. 

Answer = Property map

600.  Leveling staff is used in the process of city survey.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

601.  Which surveying is the best method in case of preparation of topographic maps?. 

A. Plane table surveying. 

B. Theodolite surveying. 

C. Compass surveying. 

D. Traverse surveying. 

Answer = Plane table surveying

602.  __________scale is used in case of preparation of street maps.. 

A. Least. 

B. Medium. 

C. Small. 

D. Large. 

Answer = Large

603.  Which among the following can be located by using street maps?. 

A. Property points. 

B. Elevation points. 

C. Pipe lines. 

D. Road way line. 

Answer = Pipe lines

604.  Bench marks are located in ______________. 

A. Electric line maps. 

B. Street maps. 

C. Road maps. 

D. Pipe line maps. 

Answer = Street maps

605.  Property map preparation is done by ____________. 

A. Least scale. 

B. Medium scale. 

C. Small scale. 

D. Large scale. 

Answer = Large scale

606.  Which map uses more specific symbols for representation?. 

A. Electric line map. 

B. Topology map. 

C. Water supply map. 

D. Property map. 

Answer = Water supply map

607.  Township survey is also known as________. 

A. Congressional township. 

B. Harbor survey. 

C. Land survey. 

D. Airport survey. 

Answer = Congressional township

608.  Which of the following indicates the purpose of the township survey?. 

A. Establishing boundaries for harbor. 

B. Establishing boundaries for government. 

C. Establishing boundaries for public. 

D. Establishing boundaries for individual land ownership. 

Answer = Establishing boundaries for individual land ownership

609.  Among the following, which map is necessary for the establishment of the township?. 

A. Environmental map. 

B. Terrain map. 

C. Property map. 

D. Area map. 

Answer = Property map

610.  Leveling staff is used in the process of city survey.. 

A. FALSE. 

B. TRUE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

611.  Which surveying is the best method in case of preparation of topographic maps?. 

A. Plane table surveying. 

B. Theodolite surveying. 

C. Compass surveying. 

D. Traverse surveying. 

Answer = Plane table surveying

612.  __________scale is used in case of preparation of street maps.. 

A. Least. 

B. Medium. 

C. Small. 

D. Large. 

Answer = Large

613.  Which among the following can be located by using street maps?. 

A. Property points. 

B. Elevation points. 

C. Pipe lines. 

D. Road way line. 

Answer = Pipe lines

614.  Bench marks are located in ______________. 

A. Electric line maps. 

B. Street maps. 

C. Road maps. 

D. Pipe line maps. 

Answer = Street maps

615.  Property map preparation is done by ____________. 

A. Least scale. 

B. Medium scale. 

C. Small scale. 

D. Large scale. 

Answer = Large scale