Key Management and Distribution MCQs

Key Management and Distribution MCQs

 1. If end to end connection is done at a network or IP level, and if there are N hosts, then what is the number of keys required?. 

A. N(N-1)/2. 

B. N. 

C. N(N+1)/2. 

D. N/2. 

Answer= N(N-1)/2


2. For 1000 nodes in IP level, how many keys would be required?. 

A. 499000. 

B. 499500. 

C. 500500. 

D. 500000. 

Answer= 499500


3. Communication between end systems is encrypted using a key, often known as. 

A. temporary key. 

B. section key. 

C. line key. 

D. session key. 

Answer= session key


4. Session keys are transmitted after being encrypted by. 

A. make-shift keys. 

B. temporary keys. 

C. master keys. 

D. section keys. 

Answer= master keys


5. For a network with N nodes, how many master keys are present?. 

A. N(N-1)/2. 

B. N. 

C. N(N+1)/2. 

D. N/2. 

Answer= N


6. PDU stands for. 

A. Protocol data unit. 

B. Pre data underscore. 

C. Permuted data unity. 

D. Protocol data untiy. 

Answer= Protocol data unit


7. SSM stands for. 

A. Secure Security Module. 

B. Session Security Module. 

C.  Service Session Module. 

D. Session Service Module. 

Answer= Session Security Module


8. Which is the last step in establishing a connection between hosts using the SSM?. 

A. Interaction/ Handshaking between the SSM and the KDC. 

B. Establishment of the connection. 

C. Release of connection rest packet. 

D. SSM saves the packet and applies to the KDC for connection permission. 

Answer= Release of connection rest packet


9. Larger networks would prefer a full decentralization.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= FALSE


10. Which of these is not a type of session key?. 

A. PIN-encrypting key. 

B. File-encrypting key. 

C. Session encrypting key. 

D. Data encrypting key. 

Answer= Session encrypting key


11. Which session key is used for electronic funds transfer and point of sale applications?. 

A. Data-encrypting key. 

B. File-encrypting key. 

C. PIN-encrypting key. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= PIN-encrypting key


12. Sometimes a simple tag is introduced along with the session key. This tag has 8 bits. Which of the following options is wrong?. 

A.  One bit indicates whether the key is a session key or a master key. 

B. One bit indicates whether the key can be used for encryption. 

C. Three bit indicates whether the key can be used for decryption. 

D. Remaining bits are for future use. 

Answer= Three bit indicates whether the key can be used for decryption


13. Hash Value = H = h(CV)Key Input = Km XOR HCiphertext = E([Km XOR H],Ks)What is CV here?. 

A. Cipher vector. 

B. Current vector. 

C. Control vector. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= Control vector


14. Which is the correct representation for session key recovery for the plain text?. 

A. D ([Km XOR H], E([Km XOR H], Ks). 

B. D([Km XOR H],Ks). 

C. D ([Km XOR H], E([Km XOR H]). 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= D ([Km XOR H], E([Km XOR H], Ks)


15. Which of the following is required to find the session key? i) Control Vector ii) Master Key iii) Encrypted session Key. 

A. i). 

B. i) and ii). 

C. i) and iii). 

D. i) ii) and iii). 

Answer= i) ii) and iii)


16. Meet in the middle attack and "man in the middle attack" are the same.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= FALSE


17. Meet in the middle attack is an attack. 

A. where the timing required for the attack via brute force is drastically reduced. 

B. where the adversary uses 2 or more machines to decrypt thus trying to reduce the time. 

C. where messages are intercepted and then either relayed or substituted with another message. 

D. where cryptanalysis takes lesser time than the brute force decryption. 

Answer= where messages are intercepted and then either relayed or substituted with another message


18. Public key encryption/decryption is not preferred because. 

A. it is slow. 

B. it is hardware/software intensive. 

C. it has a high computational load. 

D. all of the mentioned. 

Answer= all of the mentioned


19. Which one of the following is not a public key distribution means?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Hashing Certificates. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Hashing Certificates


20. What is the PGP stand for?. 

A. Permuted Gap Permission. 

B. Permuted Great Privacy. 

C. Pretty Good Permission. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= None of the mentioned


21. PGP makes use of which cryptographic algorithm?. 

A. DES. 

B. AES. 

C. RSA. 

D. Rabin. 

Answer= RSA


22. USENET is related to which of the following Public Key distribution schemes?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Public announcements


23. Which of the following public key distribution systems is most secure?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Public-Key Certificates


24. Which systems use a timestamp?i) Public-Key Certificatesii) Public announcementsiii) Publicly available directoriesiv) Public-Key authority. 

A. i) and ii). 

B. iii) and iv). 

C. i) and iv). 

D. iv) only. 

Answer= i) and iv)


25. Which of these systems use timestamps as an expiration date?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Public-Key Certificates


26. Which system uses a trusted third party interface?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Public-Key Certificates


27. Publicly Available directory is more secure than which other system?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Public-Key authority. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= Public announcements


28. Public key encryption/decryption is not preferred because. 

A. it is slow. 

B. it is hardware/software intensive. 

C. it has a high computational load. 

D. all of the mentioned. 

Answer= all of the mentioned


29. Which one of the following is not a public key distribution means?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Hashing Certificates. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Hashing Certificates


30. What is the PGP stand for?. 

A. Permuted Gap Permission. 

B. Permuted Great Privacy. 

C. Pretty Good Permission. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= None of the mentioned


31. PGP makes use of which cryptographic algorithm?. 

A. DES. 

B. AES. 

C. RSA. 

D. Rabin. 

Answer= RSA


32. USENET is related to which of the following Public Key distribution schemes?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Public announcements


33. Which of the following public key distribution systems is most secure?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Public-Key Certificates


34. Which systems use a timestamp?i) Public-Key Certificatesii) Public announcementsiii) Publicly available directoriesiv) Public-Key authority. 

A. i) and ii). 

B. iii) and iv). 

C. i) and iv). 

D. iv) only. 

Answer= i) and iv)


35. Which of these systems use timestamps as an expiration date?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Public-Key Certificates


36. Which system uses a trusted third party interface?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Publicly available directories. 

D. Public-Key authority. 

Answer= Public-Key Certificates


37. Publicly Available directory is more secure than which other system?. 

A. Public-Key Certificates. 

B. Public announcements. 

C. Public-Key authority. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= Public announcements


38. Extensions were added in which version?. 

A. 1. 

B. 2. 

C. 3. 

D. 4. 

Answer= 3


39. The subject uni identifier of the X.509 certificates was added in which version?. 

A. 1. 

B. 2. 

C. 3. 

D. 4. 

Answer= 2


40. Which of the following is not an element/field of the X.509 certificates?. 

A. Issuer Name. 

B. Serial Modifier. 

C. Issuer uni Identifier. 

D. Signature. 

Answer= Serial Modifier


41. Suppose that A has obtained a certificate from certification authority X1 and B has obtained certificate authority from CA X2. A can use a chain of certificates to obtain B's public key. In notation of X.509, this chain is represented in the correct order as  

A. X2 X1 X1 B. 

B. X1 X1 X2 A. 

C. X1 X2 X2 B. 

D. X1 X2 X2 A. 

Answer= X1 X2 X2 B


42. Certificates generated by X that are the certificates of other CAs are Reverse Certificates.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= TRUE


43. It is desirable to revoke a certificate before it expires because. 

A. the user is no longer certified by this CA. 

B. the CA's certificate is assumed to be compromised. 

C. the user's private key is assumed to be compromised. 

D. all of the mentioned. 

Answer= all of the mentioned


44. CRL stands for. 

A. Cipher Reusable List. 

B. Certificate Revocation Language. 

C. Certificate Revocation List. 

D. Certificate Resolution Language. 

Answer= Certificate Revocation List


45. Which of the following is not a part of an Extension?. 

A. Extension Identifier. 

B. Extension value. 

C. Criticality Indicator. 

D. All of the mentioned constitute the Extension. 

Answer= All of the mentioned constitute the Extension


46. The criticality indicator indicates whether an extension can be safely ignored.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= TRUE


47. Conveys any desired X.500 directory attribute values for the subject of this certificate.Which Extension among the following does this refer to?. 

A. Subject alternative name. 

B. Issuer Alternative name. 

C. Subject directory attributes. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= Subject directory attributes


48. How many handshake rounds are required in the Public-Key Distribution Scenario?. 

A. 7. 

B. 5. 

C. 3. 

D. 4. 

Answer= 7


49. A total of seven messages are required in the Public-Key distribution scenario. However, the initial five messages need to be used only infrently because both A and B can save the other's public key for future – a techni known as ____. 

A. time stamping. 

B. polling. 

C. caching. 

D. sezing. 

Answer= caching


50. X.509 certificate recommends which cryptographic algorithm?. 

A. RSA. 

B. DES. 

C. AES. 

D. Rabin. 

Answer= RSA


51. The issuer uni identifier of the X.509 certificates was added in which version?. 

A. 1. 

B. 2. 

C. 3. 

D. 4. 

Answer= 2


52. The period of validity consists of the date on which the certificate expires.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= FALSE


53. Certificate extensions fall into 3 categories. Which one of the following is not a Certificate extensions category?. 

A.  Subject and Issuer attributes. 

B. Key and Policy information. 

C. Certification path constraints. 

D. All of the above are Certificate extensions categories. 

Answer= All of the above are Certificate extensions categories


54. How many functions are involved in the PKIX architectural model?. 

A. 3. 

B. 5. 

C. 6. 

D. 7. 

Answer= 7


55. CMP stands for. 

A. cipher message protocol. 

B. cipher management protocol. 

C. certificate message protocol. 

D. none of the mentioned. 

Answer= none of the mentioned


56. CMS stands for. 

A. cipher message syntax. 

B. certificate message session. 

C. cryptographic message syntax. 

D. none of the mentioned. 

Answer= cryptographic message syntax


57. Number of Blocks in class C are  

A. 27. 

B. 28. 

C. 214. 

D. 29. 

Answer= 27


58. A router receives a packet with the destination address 132.7.21.84. Find the network address of the packet.. 

A. 1.32.7. 

B. 132.7. 

C. 13.27. 

D. 21.84. 

Answer= 132.7


59. If the first address is First address = 18.14.12.0/22. What is the last address?. 

A. 18.14.15.128/22. 

B. 18.14.15.64/22. 

C. 18.14.15.32/22. 

D. 18.14.15.255/22. 

Answer= 18.14.15.255/22


60. Nsub = n + log2(N/Nsub) is used to find the suffix length.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing can be said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= FALSE


61. Convert the following binary notation to hexadecimal notation – 10000000 00001011 00000011 00011111. 

A. 0x 80 0B 03 1E. 

B. 0x 81 0B 04 1E. 

C. 0x 80 0C 03 1F. 

D. 0x 80 0B 03 1F. 

Answer= 0x 80 0B 03 1F


62. The first address in a range of addresses is 14.11.45.96. If the number of addresses in the range is 32, what is the last address?. 

A. 14.11.44.64. 

B. 14.11.44.128. 

C. 14.12.44.128. 

D. 14.11.45.127. 

Answer= 14.11.45.127


63. In an IP packet, the value of HLEN is 516 and the value of the total length field is 002816.What is the efficiency of this datagram?. 

A. 80%. 

B. 50%. 

C. 66%. 

D. 75%. 

Answer= 50%


64. A packet has arrived in which the offset value is 100, the value of HLEN is 5 and the value of the total length field is 100. What is the number of the last byte. 

A. 880. 

B. 879. 

C. 881. 

D. 801. 

Answer= 879


65. Assume we need to download text documents at the rate of 100 pages per second. What is the required bit rate of the channel?. 

A. 1.846 Mbps. 

B. 1.536 Mbps. 

C. 2.4 Mbps. 

D. None of the Mentioned. 

Answer= 1.536 Mbps


66. Generate the CRC codeword for the data word 1101011011 using generator 10011. Also write both in the polynomial form.. 

A. 1.10101E+13. 

B. 1.10101E+13. 

C. 1.10101E+13. 

D. 1.10101E+13. 

Answer= 1.10101E+13


67. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200-bit frames using a shared channel with a 200-kbps bandwidth. Find the throughput if the system (all stations together) produces 1000 frames per second.. 

A. 92 frames. 

B. 368 frames. 

C. 276 frames. 

D. 151 frames. 

Answer= 368 frames


68. After performing bit stuffing on the following stream : 01101111111111111110010, the output is 

A. 1.10111E+24. 

B. 1.10111E+24. 

C. 1.001E+25. 

D. 1.10111E+24. 

Answer= 1.10111E+24


69. A device that helps prevent congestion and data collisions  

A. Switch. 

B. Hub. 

C. Gateway. 

D. Proxy Server. 

Answer= Switch


70. Which one of these does not lie in the Link Layer of the TCP/IP Model?. 

A. DSL. 

B. IP. 

C. SONET. 

D. 802.11. 

Answer= IP


71. How many layers are present in the TCP/IP Reference model?. 

A. 6. 

B. 7. 

C. 5. 

D. 4. 

Answer= 4


72. __________ services are implemented in every 802.11 station, including AP stations. _________ services are provided between BSSs.. 

A. Station, Distribution. 

B. Distribution, Station. 

C. Extended, Basic. 

D. Basic, Extended. 

Answer= Station, Distribution


73. There are a number of possible EAP exchanges that can be used during authentication phase. Typically the message flow between the STA and AP employs the _________ protocol.. 

A. RADUIS. 

B. EAPOL. 

C. TKIP. 

D. KSN. 

Answer= EAPOL


74. What is a valid size of the Group Temporal Key (GTK) in WEP?. 

A. 40 bits. 

B. 128 bits. 

C. 512 bits. 

D. 80 bits. 

Answer= 40 bits


75. Which Hashing algorithm is used to derive the PTK for PMK?. 

A. SHA-1. 

B. SHA-2. 

C. SHA-3. 

D. MD-5. 

Answer= SHA-1


76. Which is the correct order of the SSH Transport Layer Protocol Packet Exchanges?. 

A. Algorithm Negotiation; End of key exchange; Service rest; Identification string exchange. 

B. Identification string exchange; Algorithm Negotiation; End of key exchange; Service rest. 

C. Identification string exchange; End of key exchange; Service rest; Algorithm Negotiation. 

D. Algorithm Negotiation; Identification string exchange; End of key exchange; Service rest. 

Answer= Identification string exchange; Algorithm Negotiation; End of key exchange; Service rest


77. In which port forwarding techni does the client act on the server's behalf?. 

A. Remote Forwarding. 

B. Local Forwarding. 

C. Stable Forwarding. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= Remote Forwarding


78. Which of the following are valid authentication methods?. 

A. Public Key Based. 

B. Password Based. 

C. Host Based. 

D. All of the mentioned. 

Answer= All of the mentioned


79. The secure authentication connection is referred to as. 

A. chisel. 

B. tunnel. 

C. zeroing. 

D. handshaking. 

Answer= tunnel


80. Broadcast address is given by. 

A. 0.0.0.0. 

B. 127.x.x.x. 

C. 255.255.255.255. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer= 255.255.255.255


81. The multiplicative Inverse of 550 mod 1769 is  

A. 434. 

B. 224. 

C. 550. 

D. Does not exist. 

Answer= 434


82. It is desirable to revoke a certificate before it expires because  

A. the user is no longer certified by this CA. 

B. the CA's certificate is assumed to be compromised. 

C. the user's private key is assumed to be compromised. 

D. all of the mentioned. 

Answer= all of the mentioned


83. Suppose that A has obtained a certificate from certification authority X1 and B has obtained certificate authority from CA X2. A can use a chain of certificates to obtain B's public key. In notation of X.509, the correct order of this chain is represented as  

A. X2 X1 X1 B. 

B. X1 X1 X2 A. 

C. X1 X2 X2 B. 

D. X1 X2 X2 A. 

Answer= X1 X2 X2 B


84. Certificate extensions fall into 3 categories. Which one of the following is not a Certificate extensions category?. 

A.  Subject and Issuer attributes. 

B. Key and Policy information. 

C. Certification path constraints. 

D. All of the above are Certificate extensions categories. 

Answer= All of the above are Certificate extensions categories


85. A total of seven messages are required in the Public-Key distribution scenario. However, the initial five messages need to be used only infrently because both A and B can save the other's public key for future – a techni known as ____________. 

A. time stamping. 

B. polling. 

C. caching. 

D. sezing. 

Answer= caching


86. Which of the following slows the cryptographic algorithm – 1) Increase in Number of rounds 2) Decrease in Block size 3) Decrease in Key Size 4) Increase in Sub key Generation. 

A. 1 and 3. 

B. 2 and 3. 

C. 3 and 4. 

D. 2 and 4. 

Answer= 2 and 3


87. Which of the following statements are true. i) In the CBC mode, the plaintext block is XORed with previous ciphertext block before encryption. ii) The CTR mode does not require an Initialization Vector iii) The last block in the CBC mode uses an Initialization Vector iv) In CBC mode repetitions in plaintext do not show up in ciphertext. 

A. iii). 

B. ii) and iv). 

C. All the Statements are true. 

D. i) ii) and iv). 

Answer= i) ii) and iv)


88. What is the number of possible 3 x 3 affine cipher transformations ?. 

A. 168. 

B. 840. 

C. 1024. 

D. 1344. 

Answer= 1344


89. The blowfish algorithm's key expansion converts a key of at most 448 bits into several subkey arrays totaling ___ bytes.. 

A. 4096. 

B. 4608. 

C. 4168. 

D. 4864. 

Answer= 4168


90. For the group Sn of all permutations of n distinct symbols, what is the number of elements in Sn?. 

A. n. 

B. n-1. 

C. 2n. 

D. n!. 

Answer= n!


91. Which of the following statements are true with respect to the blowfish algorithm?i) Provided key is large enough, brute-force key search is not practical, especially given the high key schedule costii) Key dependent S-boxes and sub keys make analysis very difficultiii) Changing both halves in each round increases securityiv) Blowfish has improved avalanche effects. 

A. i) ii) and iv). 

B. ii) and iii). 

C. i). 

D. All are true. 

Answer= All are true


92. Which one of the following modes of operation in DES is used for operating short data?. 

A. Cipher Feedback Mode (CFB). 

B. Cipher Block chaining (CBC). 

C. Electronic code book (ECB). 

D. Output Feedback Modes (OFB). 

Answer= Electronic code book (ECB)


93. Which of the following is the correct encryption statement representation for the XTS-AES mode?. 

A. E(K1,P) XOR T. 

B. E(K2,T) XOR P. 

C. E(K1,T XOR P) XOR P. 

D. E(K1,P XOR T) XOR T. 

Answer= E(K1,P XOR T) XOR T


94. The last two blocks of the XTS-AES mode are. 

A. padded as 10*. 

B. encrypted/ decrypted using ciphertext-stealing. 

C. padded as 10*1. 

D. padded and then swapped after encryption/ decryption. 

Answer= encrypted/ decrypted using ciphertext-stealing


95. In AES, to make the s-box, we apply the transformation –b'i = bi XOR b(i+4) XOR b(i+5) XOR b(i+6) XOR b(i+7) XOR ciWhat is ci in this transformation?. 

A. ci is the ith bit of byte c with value 0x63. 

B. ci is the ith bit of byte c with value 0x25. 

C. ci is the ith bit of byte c with value 0x8F. 

D. ci is the ith bit of byte c with value 0x8A. 

Answer= ci is the ith bit of byte c with value 0x63


96. The inverse s-box permutation follows,b'i = b(i+2) XOR b(i+5) XOR b(i+7) XOR diHere di is  

A. di is the ith bit of a byte 'd' whose hex value is 0x15. 

B. di is the ith bit of a byte 'd' whose hex value is 0x05. 

C. di is the ith bit of a byte 'd' whose hex value is 0x25. 

D. di is the ith bit of a byte 'd' whose hex value is 0x51. 

Answer= di is the ith bit of a byte 'd' whose hex value is 0x05


97. What is the block size in the Simplified AES algorithm?. 

A. 8 bits. 

B. 40 bits. 

C. 16 bits. 

D. 36 bits. 

Answer= 40 bits


98. Which function can be used in AES multiplication  

A. m(x)=x7+x4+x3. 

B. m(x)=x8+x4+x3+x+1. 

C. m(x)=x8+x3+x2+x+1. 

D. m(x)=x8+x5+x3+x. 

Answer= m(x)=x8+x4+x3+x+1


99. In the DES algorithm the Round Input is 32 bits, which is expanded to 48 bits via ______________. 

A. Scaling of the existing bits. 

B. Duplication of the existing bits. 

C. Addition of zeros. 

D. Addition of ones. 

Answer= Scaling of the existing bits


100. Using Differential Crypt-analysis, the minimum computations required to decipher the DES algorithm is 

A. 256. 

B. 243. 

C. 255. 

D. 247. 

Answer= 247


101. Using SDES, the Plaintext for the Ciphertext 00001111, given that the key is 1111111111 is,. 

A. 1100111. 

B. 1010. 

C. 11111111. 

D. 1101101. 

Answer= 11111111


102. 12. For p = 11 and q = 17 and choose e=7. Apply RSA algorithm where Cipher message=11 and thus find the plain text.. 

A. 88. 

B. 122. 

C. 143. 

D. 111. 

Answer= 88


103. Reduce the following Big-O notation. O[ ax7 + 3 x3 + sin(x)] = 

A. O[ax7].. 

B. O[sin(x)].. 

C. O[x7].. 

D. O[x7 + x3].. 

Answer= O[x7].


104. Reduce the following Big-O notation. O[ en + an10] = 

A. O[ an10].. 

B. O[ n10 ].. 

C. O[ en ].. 

D. O[ en+ n10 ].. 

Answer= O[ en ].


105. The number of rounds in RC5 can range from 0 to _____________. 

A. 127. 

B. 63. 

C. 255. 

D. 31. 

Answer= 255


106. Multiply the polynomials P1 = (x5 + x2 + x) by P2 = (x7 + x4 + x3 + x2 + x) in GF(28) with irreducible polynomial (x8 + x4 + x3 + x + 1). The result is. 

A. x4+ x3+ x+1. 

B. x5+ x3+ x2+x+1. 

C. x5+ x4+ x3+x+1. 

D. x5+ x3+ x2+x. 

Answer= x5+ x3+ x2+x+1


107. RC5 uses 2 magic constants to define their subkeys. These are. 

A. Base of natural Logarithm and Golden ratio. 

B. Base of natural Logarithm and Pi. 

C. Golden Ratio and  Pi. 

D. Pi and Golden Ration. 

Answer= Base of natural Logarithm and Golden ratio


108. How many keys are used in the ANSI X9.17 PRNG?. 

A. 3. 

B. 2. 

C. 4. 

D. 6. 

Answer= 3


109. The GCD of x5+ x4+ x3– x2 – x + 1 and x3 + x2+ x + 1 over GF(3) is. 

A. 1. 

B. x. 

C. x + 1. 

D. x2 + 1. 

Answer= x + 1


110. The property that any extracted subsence should pass the test for randomness is. 

A. Scalability. 

B. Uniformity. 

C. Stability. 

D. Consistency. 

Answer= Scalability


111. Maurer's Universal Statistical Test is. 

A. a test to determine whether the number of runs of ones and zeros of various lengths is as expecte. 

B. a test to detect if a sence can be significantly compressed without loss of information. 

C. a test to determine whether the number of ones and zeros in a sence is approx the same as in a truely random o/p. 

D. a test for the check of evenness in the 1s and 0s. 

Answer= a test to detect if a sence can be significantly compressed without loss of information


112. Find the first 8 bits for Blum Blum Shub Bit Generator when seed = 101355 and n = 192649.. 

A. 10101010. 

B. 11100010. 

C. 11001011. 

D. 11001110. 

Answer= 11001110


113. Which one of the following is not a RC5 mode of operation?. 

A. RC5 block cipher. 

B. RC5-Cipher Block Chaining. 

C. RC5-Cipher Padding. 

D. RC5-CipherText Stealing. 

Answer= RC5-Cipher Padding


114. On Encrypting "thepepsiisintherefrigerator" using Vignere Cipher System using the keyword "HUMOR" we get cipher text. 

A. abqdnwewuwjphfvrrtrfznsdokvl. 

B. abqdvmwuwjphfvvyyrfznydokvl. 

C. tbqyrvmwuwjphfvvyyrfznydokvl. 

D. baiuvmwuwjphfoeiyrfznydokvl. 

Answer= abqdvmwuwjphfvvyyrfznydokvl


115. The plain text for the cipher text RRLMWBKASPDH. Given the encryption key [(17 17 5 . 

A.  21 18 21 . 

B.  2 2 19)] is  

C. PAYMOREMONEY. 

D. PAYINGRANSOM. 

Answer= GETINTHECAB


116. The Inverse S-box value for byte stored in cell (D,2). 

A. 0x5F. 

B. 0x2D. 

C. 0x7F. 

D. 0x5D. 

Answer= 0x7F


117. Division of  (131B6C3) base 16 by (lA2F) base 16 yeilds. 

A. 1AD. 

B. DAD. 

C. BAD. 

D. 9AD. 

Answer= 9AD


118. How many rounds does the AES-192 perform?. 

A. 10. 

B. 12. 

C. 14. 

D. 16. 

Answer= 12

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