1. Which of the following is a mineral?.
A. basalt
B. granite
C. quartz
D. syenite.
Answer = quartz
2. Gypsum is a_________________?.
A. mechanically formed sedimentary rock
B. igneous rock
C. chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
D. metamorphic rock.
Answer = chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
3. Which of the following is a rock ?.
A. quartz
B. mica
C. gypsum
D. none of the above.
Answer = gypsum
4. Slate is formed by metamorphic action on______________?.
A. shale
B. lime stone
C. sand stone
D. granite.
Answer = shale
5. Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ?.
A. marble
B. lime stone
C. compact sand stone
D. granite.
Answer = compact sand stone
6. The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is_____________?.
A. quartz
B. feldspar
C. mica
D. none of the above.
Answer = quartz
7. Jumper is a tool used for_______________?.
A. testing of stones
B. quarrying of stones
C. dressing of stones
D. none of the above.
Answer = quarrying of stones
8. A good building stone should not absorb water more than_____________?.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%.
Answer = 5%
9. Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ?.
A. sand stone
B. lime stone
C. shale
D. gypsum.
Answer = sand stone
10. Quartitze is a_____________?.
A. silicious rock
B. argillaceous rock
C. calcareous rock
D. aqueous rock.
Answer = silicious rock
11. The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be____________?.
A. hard
B. tough
C. heavy
D. light.
Answer = hard
12. Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics ?.
A. marble
B. quartzite
C. slate
D. lime stone.
Answer = quartzite
13. The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is________________?.
A. hardness test
B. work ability test
C. weight test
D. toughness test.
Answer = weight test
14. Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because_______________?.
A. it can not be polished
B. it is not a fire proof material
C. it is costly
D. it has less crushing strength.
Answer = it is costly
15. The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and shape is known as______________?.
A. quarrying of stones
B. blasting of stones
C. seasoning of stones
D. dressing of stones.
Answer = dressing of stones
16. Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt, granite, marble, gypsum, mica______________?.
A. basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks
B. there is no sedimentary rock
C. granite is the only igneous rock
D. quartz and mica are minerals.
Answer = quartz and mica are minerals
17. Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge ?.
A. granite
B. sand stone
C. lime stone
D. quartzite.
Answer = granite
18. Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between_____________?.
A. 1.5 to 2.0
B. 2.0 to 2.5
C. 2.5 to 3.0
D. 3.0 to 3.5.
Answer = 2.5 to 3.0
19. Cross cut saw is used for_______________?.
A. cutting soft stones
B. cutting hard stones
C. cutting large blocks of stones
D. dressing stones.
Answer = cutting hard stones
20. Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than____________?.
A. 50 MPa
B. 100 MPa
C. 150 MPa
D. 200 MPa.
Answer = 100 MPa
21. Spalling hammer is used for_____________?.
A. driving wooden headed chisels
B. rough dressing of stones
C. carving of stones
D. breaking small projection of stones.
Answer = rough dressing of stones
22. Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?.
A. mulberry
B. mahogany
C. sal
D. deodar.
Answer = mulberry
23. Sapwood consists of______________?.
A. innermost annular rings around the pith
B. portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
C. thin layers below the bark
D. thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together.
Answer = portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
24. In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood ?.
A. deodar and shishum
B. chir and sal
C. sal and teak
D. chir and deodar.
Answer = chir and deodar
25. Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?.
A. deodar
B. chir
C. shishum
D. pine.
Answer = shishum
26. The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as________________?.
A. heart shakes
B. cupshakes
C. starshakes
D. rindgalls.
Answer = starshakes
27. The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by_____________?.
A. lack of ventilation
B. alternate wet and dry conditions
C. complete submergence in water
D. none of the above.
Answer = lack of ventilation
28. In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?.
A. parallel to grains
B. 45° to grains
C. perpendicular to grains
D. same in all directions.
Answer = parallel to grains
29. Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock? (1) slate (2) shale (3) quartziteThe correct answer is___________?.
A. only (3)
B. both (1) and (3)
C. both (2) and (3)
D. all (1), (2) and (3).
Answer = both (1) and (3)
30. Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork. Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer = Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
31. The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is_______________?.
A. 4% to 6%
B. 10% to 12%
C. 15% to 20%
D. 100%.
Answer = 10% to 12%
32. Plywood has the advantage of_____________?.
A. greater tensile strength in longer direction
B. greater tensile strength in shorter direction
C. same tensile strength in all directions
D. none of the above.
Answer = same tensile strength in all directions
33. The plywood______________?.
A. has good strength along the panel only
B. can be spilt in the plane of the panel
C. has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
D. cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness.
Answer = has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
34. First class timber has an average life of_____________?.
A. less than one year
B. 1 to 5 years
C. 5 to 10 years
D. more than 10 years.
Answer = more than 10 years
35. The main function of alumina in brick earth is_______________?.
A. to impart plasticity
B. to make the brick durable
C. to prevent shrinkage
D. to make the brick impermeable.
Answer = to impart plasticity
36. A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than______________?.
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 22%
D. 25%.
Answer = 20%
37. Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is_________________?.
A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 90°.
Answer = 90°
38. The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as_______________?.
A. log
B. batten
C. plank
D. baulk.
Answer = log
39. The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is________________?.
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 35%.
Answer = 15%
40. Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than_____________?.
A. 3.5 N/mm2
B. 7.0 N/mm2
C. 10.5 N/mm2
D. 14.0 N/mm2.
Answer = 10.5 N/mm2
41. The age of a tree can be known by examining_________________?.
A. cambium layer
B. annular rings
C. medullary rays
D. heart wood.
Answer = annular rings
42. Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick______________?.
A. impermeable
B. brittle and weak
C. to lose cohesion
D. to crack and warp on drying.
Answer = to crack and warp on drying
43. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between_______________?.
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%.
Answer = 50 to 60%
44. The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between________________?.
A. 5 to 10%
B. 20 to 30%
C. 50 to 60%
D. 70 to 80%.
Answer = 20 to 30%
45. The nominal size of the modular brick is_______________?.
A. 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
B. 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
C. 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
D. 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm.
Answer = 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
46. Excess of silica in brick earth results in______________?.
A. cracking and warping of bricks
B. loss of cohesion
C. enhancing the impermeability of bricks
D. none of the above.
Answer = loss of cohesion
47. Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?.
A. alumina
B. silica
C. iron
D. magnesia.
Answer = silica
48. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as______________?.
A. kneading
B. moulding
C. pugging
D. drying.
Answer = kneading
49. The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is__________________?.
A. equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
B. smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
C. greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
D. none of the above.
Answer = greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
50. Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?.
A. overburnt bricks
B. underburnt bricks
C. refractory bricks
D. first class bricks.
Answer = refractory bricks
51. Pug mill is used for_______________?.
A. preparation of clay
B. moulding of clay
C. drying of bricks
D. burning of bricks.
Answer = preparation of clay
52. Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ?.
A. lime stone and alumina
B. silica and alkalies
C. alumina and iron
D. alkalies and magnesium.
Answer = silica and alkalies
53. The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on______________?.
A. bottom face
B. top face
C. shorter side
D. longer side.
Answer = top face
54. Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that_______________?.
A. it takes less time for burning
B. it gives more output of first class bricks
C. it has less initial cost
D. it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers.
Answer = it has less initial cost
55. Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is____________?.
A. 400
B. 450
C. 500
D. 550.
Answer = 500
56. Quick lime is_______________?.
A. calcium carbonate
B. calcium oxide
C. calcium hydroxide
D. none of the above.
Answer = calcium oxide
57. Quick lime is (1) slow in setting (2) rapid in slacking (3) good in strength The correct answer is____________?.
A. only (1)
B. only (2)
C. both (1) and (2)
D. both (2) and (3).
Answer = both (1) and (2)
58. Glazing is used to make earthenware______________?.
A. hard
B. soft
C. porous
D. impervious.
Answer = impervious
59. Hydraulic lime is obtained by_______________?.
A. burning of lime stone
B. burning of kankar
C. adding water to quick lime
D. calcination of pure clay.
Answer = burning of kankar
60. The main ingredients of Portland cement are________________?.
A. lime and silica
B. lime and alumina
C. silica and alumina
D. lime and iron.
Answer = lime and silica
61. Le Chatelier's device is used for determining the_______________?.
A. setting time of cement
B. soundness of cement
C. tensile strength of cement
D. compressive strength of cement.
Answer = soundness of cement
62. The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less than_____________?.
A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 600 minutes.
Answer = 30 minutes
63. The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is____________?.
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. tetra calcium alumino ferrite.
Answer = tricalcium aluminate
64. As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be_______________?.
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
D. 10 hours.
Answer = 10 hours
65. Study the following statements. (1) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing, (2) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing, (3) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar, (4) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar. The correct answer is______________?.
A. (1) and (4)
B. (2) and (3)
C. (1) and (2)
D. (3) and (4).
Answer = (2) and (3)
66. Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength. Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?.
A. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer = Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
67. The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is______________?.
A. calcium oxide
B. silica
C. clay
D. water.
Answer = clay
68. The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is_________________?.
A. dicalcium silicate
B. tricalcium silicate
C. tricalcium aluminate
D. all of the above.
Answer = tricalcium aluminate
69. For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is_______________?.
A. 50 mm
B. 70.6 mm
C. 100 mm
D. 150 mm.
Answer = 50 mm
70. Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to_______________?.
A. gypsum
B. finer grinding
C. tricalcium silicate
D. tricalcium aluminate.
Answer = finer grinding
71. According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days should not be less than________________?.
A. 7 MPa
B. 11.5 MPa
C. 16 MPa
D. 21 MPa.
Answer = 16 MPa
72. With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand_______________?.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
D. first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases.
Answer = first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
73. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases__________________?.
A. bleeding
B. shrinkage
C. permeability
D. heat of hydration.
Answer = shrinkage
74. The slump recommended for mass concrete is about_______________?.
A. 25 mm to 50 mm
B. 50 mm to 100 mm
C. 100 mm to 125 mm
D. 125 mm to 150 mm.
Answer = 25 mm to 50 mm
75. After storage, the strength of cement________________?.
A. decreases
B. increases
C. remains same
D. may increase or decrease.
Answer = decreases
76. The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about________________?.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%.
Answer = 30%
77. Gypsum consists of______________?.
A. H2S and C02
B. CaS04 and H20
C. Lime and H20
D. C02 and calcium.
Answer = CaS04 and H20
78. For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of___________________?.
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 1:4
D. 1:6.
Answer = 1:3
79. Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?.
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement.
Answer = low heat cement
80. The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight of cement is_______________?.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4.
Answer = 2
81. The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is______________?.
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above.
Answer = calcium chloride
82. Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?.
A. iron
B. carbon
C. manganese
D. sulphur.
Answer = carbon
83. Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are_______________?.
A. iron ore, coal and sulphur
B. iron ore, carbon and sulphur
C. iron ore, coal and lime stone
D. iron ore, carbon and lime stone.
Answer = iron ore, coal and lime stone
84. Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?.
A. ordinary Portland cement
B. low heat cement
C. rapid hardening cement
D. sulphate resisting cement.
Answer = low heat cement
85. The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about_________________?.
A. 160N/mm2
B. 260N/mm2
C. 420 N/mm2
D. 520 N/mm2.
Answer = 420 N/mm2
86. The most commonly used retarder in cement is_________________?.
A. gypsum
B. calcium chloride
C. calcium carbonate
D. none of the above.
Answer = gypsum
87. The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is_____________?.
A. to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
B. to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
C. to render the concrete more water tight
D. to improve the workability of concrete mix.
Answer = to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
88. Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?.
A. cast iron
B. wrought iron
C. mild steel
D. high carbon steel.
Answer = wrought iron
89. Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting. Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer = Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
90. The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is_____________?.
A. 0.2 liter
B. 0.4 liter
C. 0.6 liter
D. 0.8 liter.
Answer = 0.6 liter
91. In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is known as_______________?.
A. English bond
B. double flemish bond
C. zigzag bond
D. single flemish bond.
Answer = double flemish bond
92. The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually______________?.
A. linseed oil
B. water
C. varnish
D. none of the above.
Answer = varnish
93. Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of______________________?.
A. wood work
B. iron work
C. both wood work and iron work
D. none of the above.
Answer = wood work
94. Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?.
A. ultimate stress
B. yield stress
C. proof stress
D. none of the above.
Answer = yield stress
95. Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works. Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron. Select your answer according to the coding system given below ?.
A. Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer = Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A
96. The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is______________?.
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels.
Answer = less than 1
97. Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is_______________?.
A. less than 0.25
B. between 0.25 and 0.7
C. between 0.7 and 1.5
D. greater than 1.5.
Answer = less than 0.25
98. The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be_____________?.
A. along the direction of bedding planes
B. at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
C. at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
D. perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes.
Answer = perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
99. A queen closer is a______________?.
A. brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
B. brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
C. brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
D. brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other.
Answer = brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
100. The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is_____________?.
A. 90 mm
B. 180 mm
C. 190 mm
D. 280 mm.
Answer = 90 mm
101. Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?.
A. headers
B. stretchers
C. brick bats
D. queen closer.
Answer = headers
102. The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is____________?.
A. trowel
B. square
C. bolster
D. scutch.
Answer = trowel
103. The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is___________?.
A. single flemish bond
B. double flemish bond
C. English bond
D. zigzag bond.
Answer = English bond
104. Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is_____________?.
A. half brick thick
B. one brick thick
C. one and a half bricks thick
D. two bricks thick.
Answer = one and a half bricks thick
105. Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than_______________?.
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m.
Answer = 40 m
106. A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as_________________?.
A. bed joint
B. wall joint
C. cross joint
D. bonded joint.
Answer = cross joint
107. The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are_______________?.
A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 1:6
D. 1:8.
Answer = 1:2
108. As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be_____________?.
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. equal or more.
Answer = less
109. The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than_____________?.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40.
Answer = 20
110. Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course, where x is equal to_________________?.
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1/4.
Answer = 1/2
111. Single flemish bond consists of___________________?.
A. double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
B. English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
C. stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
D. double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course.
Answer = double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
112. In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is to_________________?.
A. increase the depth of foundation
B. drain the soil
C. compact the soil
D. replace the poor soil.
Answer = replace the poor soil
113. The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited to______________?.
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm.
Answer = 65 mm
114. The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to______________?.
A. 25 mm
B. 25 to 40 mm
C. 40 to 65 mm
D. 65 to 100 mm.
Answer = 65 to 100 mm
115. The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor covering is desired is____________________?.
A. cork flooring
B. glass flooring
C. wooden flooring
D. linoleum flooring.
Answer = cork flooring
116. Depth or height of the arch is the________________?.
A. perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
B. vertical distance between springing line and intrados
C. perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
D. none of the above.
Answer = perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
117. The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as______________?.
A. friction pile
B. sheet pile
C. batter pile
D. anchor pile.
Answer = batter pile
118. The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by_____________?.
A. compacting the soil
B. draining the soil
C. increasing the depth of foundation
D. grouting.
Answer = draining the soil
119. The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is_______________?.
A. 0.5 m
B. 0.7 m
C. 0.9 m
D. 1.2 m.
Answer = 0.9 m
120. The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is known as______________?.
A. intrados
B. rise
C. spandril
D. extrados.
Answer = rise
121. The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is_______________?.
A. segmental arch
B. pointed arch
C. relieving arch
D. flat arch.
Answer = relieving arch
122. The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is known as_____________________?.
A. haunch
B. spandril
C. voussoirs
D. skewbacks.
Answer = spandril
123. In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for________________?.
A. centring
B. actual laying of arch work
C. striking of centring
D. none of the above.
Answer = striking of centring
124. The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is______________?.
A. pitched and sloping roof
B. flat roof
C. shell roof
D. none of the above.
Answer = flat roof
125. The lintels are preferred to arches because______________?.
A. arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
B. arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
C. arches are difficult in construction
D. all of the above.
Answer = all of the above
126. The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess is__________________?.
A. mortise and tennon joint
B. oblique mortise and tennon joint
C. butt joint
D. mitred joint.
Answer = oblique mortise and tennon joint
127. The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as_____________?.
A. gable roof
B. hip roof
C. gambrel roof
D. mansard roof.
Answer = gambrel roof
128. The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is called______________?.
A. ridge board
B. hip rafter
C. eaves board
D. valley rafter.
Answer = ridge board
129. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for________________?.
A. coastal regions
B. plain regions
C. covering large areas
D. all of the above.
Answer = coastal regions
130. Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in________________?.
A. two directions without break in the slope on each side
B. two directions with break in the slope on each side
C. four directions without break in the slope on each side
D. four directions with break in the slope on each side.
Answer = four directions with break in the slope on each side
131. The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is known as______________?.
A. hip
B. gable
C. ridge
D. eaves.
Answer = eaves
132. Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of________________?.
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m.
Answer = 4.5 m
133. Higher pitch of the roof (1) results in stronger roof (2) results in weaker roof (3) requires more covering material (4) requires less covering material The correct answer is___________?.
A. (1) and (3)
B. (1) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4).
Answer = (1) and (3)
134. The function of cleats in a roof truss is______________?.
A. to support the common rafter
B. to support purlins
C. to prevent the purlins from tilting
D. all of the above.
Answer = to prevent the purlins from tilting
135. Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of______________?.
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5 m.
Answer = 4.5 m
136. The function of king post in a king post roof truss is_______________?.
A. to support the frame work of the roof
B. to receive the ends of principal rafter
C. to prevent the walls from spreading outward
D. to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre.
Answer = to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
137. In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be_____________?.
A. 90° and 0°
B. 75° and 30°
C. 60° and 10°
D. 40° and 25°.
Answer = 40° and 25°
138. Sum of tread and rise must lie between_______________?.
A. 300 to 350 mm
B. 400 to 450 mm
C. 500 to 550 mm
D. 600 to 650 mm.
Answer = 400 to 450 mm
139. The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to______________?.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 15
D. no limit.
Answer = 12
140. Minimum width of landing should be_______________?.
A. equal to width of stairs
B. half the width of stairs
C. twice the width of stairs
D. one fourth the width of stairs.
Answer = equal to width of stairs
141. The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known as_________________?.
A. balusters
B. newal posts
C. balustrades
D. railings.
Answer = newal posts
142. The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than________________?.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. no limit.
Answer = 3
143. The term string is used for______________?.
A. the underside of a stair
B. outer projecting edge of a tread
C. a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
D. a vertical member between two treads.
Answer = a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
144. In a colar beam roof_______________?.
A. there is no horizontal tie beam
B. there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
C. there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
D. there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters.
Answer = there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
145. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is_______________?.
A. raft foundation
B. grillage foundation
C. well foundation
D. isolated footing.
Answer = grillage foundation
146. The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed_____________?.
A. 25 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 65 mm
D. 100 mm.
Answer = 25 mm
147. As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is_________________?.
A. stronger
B. more compact
C. costly
D. none of the above.
Answer = more compact
148. Which type of climate consists of high humidity throughout the year and even in the dry season with variations in day and night temperatures..
A. Hot wet.
B. Hot dry.
C. Cool dry.
D. Rainy.
Answer = Hot wet
149. Which building material have high Seismic resistance and flexibility of nailed joints..
A. Bamboo.
B. Timber.
C. Ply.
D. Husk.
Answer = Timber
150. Pyramids are the best example of ______.
A. Flood Resisting structure.
B. Dust storm Resisting structure.
C. Insulating structure.
D. Earthquake resisting structure.
Answer = Earthquake resisting structure
151. Which is the most important advanced technique of earthquake resistant design and construction?.
A. Flexible steel form.
B. Reinforced concrete.
C. Base Isolation.
D. Steel strengthening Treatment.
Answer = Base Isolation
152. The temperature at the _______ is the highest and it is lowest at the ______.
A. longitude, latitude.
B. poles, equator.
C. north, south.
D. equator, poles.
Answer = equator, poles
153. _______ used to mean the regulation of admitting more or less sunshine in the room..
A. Elegance.
B. Roominess.
C. Circulation.
D. Aspect.
Answer = Aspect
154. The term ______ is used to mean the link or access or movement between the various rooms and floors of building..
A. Flexibility.
B. Prospect.
C. Circulation.
D. Elegance.
Answer = Circulation
155. _________ is used to indicate the architectural effect produced by elevation in relation to width, height position of doors and windows, materials employed in the construction of external walls, etc..
A. Furniture requirements.
B. Elegance.
C. Roominess.
D. Grouping.
Answer = Elegance
156. The placing of various rooms or units of a structure in a proper correlation of their functions and in due proximity with each other is known as ________.
A. Sanitation.
B. Prospect.
C. Economy.
D. Grouping.
Answer = Grouping
157. One of the important requirements of good planning is ______.
A. Privacy.
B. Furniture requirements.
C. Prospect.
D. Roominess.
Answer = Privacy
158. The term _______ is used to refer the effect derived from space of a room that is its length, width and height..
A. Prospect.
B. Sanitation.
C. Privacy.
D. Roominess.
Answer = Roominess
159. As a principle of planning, the term _______ is used to mean architectural hygiene..
A. Sanitation.
B. Drainage.
C. Water supply.
D. Waste water.
Answer = Sanitation
160. Due to improper ventilation, which gas gets stuck into house and develops dizziness to the occupants..
A. Oxygen.
B. Nitrogen.
C. Carbon dioxide.
D. Hydrogen.
Answer = Carbon dioxide
161. The proper and sufficient ventilation results in absence of _________.
A. Condensation.
B. Deposition.
C. Precipitation.
D. Circulation.
Answer = Condensation
162. The ________ is required to control dust and other impurities in the air..
A. Circulation.
B. Sanitation.
C. Ventilation.
D. Purification.
Answer = Ventilation
163. Construction of cavity walls as external walls to protect the building from outside heat or cold as the hollow space between two walls act as an________.
A. Burning material.
B. Insulating material.
C. Destructive material.
D. Building material.
Answer = Insulating material
164. __________ in a building means the free passage of clean air in a building..
A. Habitation.
B. Protection.
C. Sanitation.
D. Ventilation.
Answer = Ventilation
165. Which gas leads to suffocation and dizziness to the occupants when increase in its quantity in the air..
A. Carbon monoxide.
B. Hydrogen.
C. Nitrogen.
D. Carbon dioxide.
Answer = Carbon dioxide
166. The termite, which are responsible for the destruction of wooden materials, are popularly known as _______.
A. Red ants.
B. White ants.
C. Black ants.
D. Big ants.
Answer = White ants
167. The science which deals with the sound insulation in a building is known as _____.
A. Reverberation.
B. Transmission.
C. Acoustic.
D. Air borne.
Answer = Acoustic
168. Fire extinguisher extinguishes the small fires in the house bye using _____.
A. Carbon dioxide.
B. Nitrogen gas.
C. Water.
D. Foam.
Answer = Carbon dioxide
169. The process in which the difference of temperature between the outside air and the inside air tends to the deposition of moisture on the room surfaces is known as ______.
A. Saturation.
B. Accumulation.
C. Precipitation.
D. Condensation.
Answer = Condensation
170. The treatment given to the roof of a building to prevent the roof from the leakage of water is known as _________.
A. Fire proofing.
B. Damp proofing.
C. Termite proofing.
D. Sound proofing.
Answer = Damp proofing
171. _________ is a flexible material which is commonly used for the damp proofing..
A. Hot bitumen.
B. Bituminous felts.
C. Mastic asphalt.
D. Metal sheets.
Answer = Hot bitumen
172. Which one of the given below is a chemical insecticide for termite proofing..
A. Dieldrin.
B. Sulphuric acid.
C. Rodenticide.
D. Pyrethrins.
Answer = Dieldrin
173. The part of a building constructed below ground level is known as _________.
A. Plinth.
B. Superstructure.
C. Basement.
D. Foundation.
Answer = Foundation
174. The load of the structure distributed by the foundation is __________.
A. Concentrated.
B. Varying.
C. Uniform.
D. Eccentric.
Answer = Uniform
175. For loose soil, the formula used to find the minimum depth of foundation is given by _______.
A. Rankine’s formula.
B. Hiley formula.
C. Bernoulli’s formula.
D. Newtonian formula.
Answer = Rankine’s formula
176. The foundation in which the loading on the soil remains practically the same after the construction of the building is known as _______.
A. Step foundation.
B. Grillage foundation.
C. Raft foundation.
D. Inverted arch foundation.
Answer = Grillage foundation
177. _________ method of increasing the bearing power of soil becomes very useful when the load coming on the soil is practically uniform..
A. Raft foundation.
B. Grillage foundation.
C. Mat foundation.
D. Inverted arch foundation.
Answer = Raft foundation
178. When the ground is sloping, _______ foundations are used to correct the levels of the sloping ground on which the building is to be constructed..
A. Shallow foundation.
B. Combined foundation.
C. Cantilever foundation.
D. Steeped foundation.
Answer = Steeped foundation
179. Which type of foundation is used for the construction of building on black cotton soil..
A. Inverted arch foundation.
B. Floating foundation.
C. Mat foundation.
D. Grillage foundation.
Answer = Mat foundation
180. ________ is applied to the process of laying down certain lines and marks on the ground before the excavation of foundation trenches..
A. Ground tracing.
B. Surveying.
C. Dumpy level.
D. Digging.
Answer = Ground tracing
181. If the foundation of the structure is to be divided into two or more independent units, ________ are provided to take care of unequal settlement..
A. Construction joints.
B. Mechanical joints.
C. Slip joints.
D. Connecting joints.
Answer = Slip joints
182. A common footing provided for two or more columns is known as _________.
A. Continues footing.
B. Combined footing.
C. Cantilever footing.
D. Eccentric footing.
Answer = Combined footing
183. The part of the building above the ground level and up to the floor level immediately above the ground is known as __________.
A. Plinth area.
B. Formation level.
C. Ground level.
D. Plinth.
Answer = Plinth
184. The built up area measured and the plinth level is known as __________.
A. Total area.
B. Plinth area.
C. Plot area.
D. Floor area.
Answer = Plinth area
185. What should be the average height of plinth..
A. 300-500 m.
B. 1-2 m.
C. 300-450 mm.
D. 50-100 mm.
Answer = 300-450 mm
186. In a market area, the plinth area should not exceed ____ of the area of site..
A. 0.75.
B. 0.25.
C. 0.95.
D. 0.55.
Answer = 0.75
187. The ______ provides support to the occupants, furniture, fixtures and equipments of a building..
A. Plinth.
B. Ramp.
C. Floor.
D. Lifts.
Answer = Floor
188. _________ is known as Substructure of the building..
A. Plinth.
B. Trenches.
C. Foundation.
D. Footing.
Answer = Foundation
189. The height of the Plinth should not be less than ____.
A. 45 cm.
B. 20 cm.
C. 1 m.
D. 500 cm.
Answer = 45 cm
190. The portion below the plinth level is known as ______.
A. Plinth area.
B. Superstructure.
C. Sub-structure.
D. Formation level.
Answer = Sub-structure
191. Foundations are more susceptible to ______.
A. Settlement.
B. Corrosion.
C. Fracture.
D. Shocks.
Answer = Settlement
192. The word Plinth is derived from _____.
A. Latin.
B. Greek.
C. Spanish.
D. Polish.
Answer = Greek
193. A square pit, know as _________ with side as about 1.50 m, is excavated upto a depth at which sufficiently hard soil is available..
A. Test pits.
B. Probing.
C. Test piles.
D. Deep boring.
Answer = Test pits
194. _________ consists of driving either a hollow tube or a steel rod or an iron rod into the ground..
A. Trail pits.
B. Test piles.
C. Probing.
D. Digging.
Answer = Probing
195. The ____________ is the term used to denote a method in which case is driven into the ground and the material inside the casing is washed out and brought to the surface for inspection..
A. Deep boring.
B. Percussion boring.
C. Rotary drilling.
D. Wash boring.
Answer = Wash boring
196. The method in which 4 electrons are driven in the ground at equal distance apart and in a straight line upto a depth which the ground distance is to be measured..
A. Seismic refraction method.
B. Geophysical method.
C. Electrical resistivity method.
D. Current extraction method.
Answer = Electrical resistivity method
197. The number of blows required to drive the penetrometer into the ground through a distance of 300 mm is measured which is known as _____________ of the soil..
A. Standard penetration resistance.
B. Bearing power of soil.
C. Maximum safe bearing capacity.
D. Allowable bearing pressure.
Answer = Standard penetration resistance
198. The resistance of the soil with depth is measured by means of a tool known as the _______.
A. Seismometer.
B. Potentiometer.
C. Penetrometer.
D. Ammeter.
Answer = Penetrometer
199. The shock waves so produced travel down in the sub soil strata and get reflected after striking a hard rock surface below and recorded by the instrument known as _____.
A. Microphone.
B. Geophone.
C. Receiver.
D. Sensors.
Answer = Geophone
200. What is average depth of a Test pit?.
A. 10 m.
B. 2 m.
C. 1.50 m.
D. 15 m.
Answer = 1.50 m
201. For determining the bearing capacity of soil, in method of loading the size for a square steel plate used is about ________.
A. 300 mm2 to 750 mm2.
B. 3000 mm2 to 7500 mm2.
C. 3 m2 to 75 m2.
D. 3 mm2 to 75 mm2.
Answer = 3000 mm2 to 7500 mm2
202. The plates should have sufficient thickness to with stand the maximum bending stresses due to probable loading. But in no case, it should be less than 25 mm..
A. In method of loading, which material is used for loading..
B. Wooden pegs.
C. Square steel plate.
D. Sand bags.
Answer = Square steel plate
203. The bearing capacity of sandy soil and gravelly soils is affected to the extent of _____% by the presence of water table..
A. 50.0.
B. 10.0.
C. 25.0.
D. 80.0.
Answer = 50.0
204. Due to the adjustment of soil particles under the action of loading, there is some settlement at zero loading, this is known as the ___________.
A. Bearing capacity.
B. Safe bearing capacity.
C. Vibroflotation.
D. Zero correction.
Answer = Zero correction
205. The loading to the test plate is applied with the help of ______.
A. Sand bags.
B. Hydraulic jack.
C. Wooden pegs.
D. Hard rocks.
Answer = Hydraulic jack
206. In analytical methods, which soil parameters used to determine the ultimate bearing capacity of soil..
A. Angle of internal friction.
B. Permeability.
C. Adhesion.
D. Porosity.
Answer = Angle of internal friction
207. In Penetration test, the formula obtained for the safe bearing capacity of soil per unit area is given by:.
A. R÷{A×F}.
B. R-{A×F}.
C. R+{A×F}.
D. R×{A×F}.
Answer = R÷{A×F}
208. Which method for determining the bearing power of soil is most preferred among the given below:.
A. Method of loading.
B. Plate load test.
C. Penetration test.
D. Analytical method.
Answer = Plate load test
209. _________ is used to indicate the maximum load per unit area which the soil will resist safely without displacement..
A. Bearing power.
B. Maximum safe bearing capacity.
C. Strength of soil.
D. Allowable bearing pressure.
Answer = Bearing power
210. The term _________ on soil is used to indicate the maximum pressure which can be exerted on soil while taking into account shear failure, settlement and the ability of structure to resist settlement..
A. Bearing capacity.
B. Net pressure intensity.
C. Allowable bearing pressure.
D. Maximum safe bearing capacity.
Answer = Allowable bearing pressure
211. The maximum differential settlement should not exceed _____ mm in case of foundation on sandy soil..
A. 100.0.
B. 40.0.
C. 50.0.
D. 25.0.
Answer = 25.0
212. The maximum differential settlement should not exceed ____ mm in case of foundation on clayey soil..
A. 40.0.
B. 25.0.
C. 100.0.
D. 50.0.
Answer = 40.0
213. The maximum safe bearing capacity of hard rocks with defects and lamination such as granite, diorite and trap is _____ kN/m2..
A. 1650.0.
B. 3300.0.
C. 250.0.
D. 100.0.
Answer = 3300.0
214. The maximum safe bearing capacity of very soft, wet, pasty or muddy clay is ____ kN/m2..
A. 150.0.
B. 100.0.
C. 50.0.
D. 25.0.
Answer = 50.0
215. In case of non-cohesive soils such as sand and gravel, ___% reduction in allowable bearing capacity of the soil should be applied, if the water table is situated below or near the bearing surface of the soil..
A. 0.2.
B. 0.5.
C. 0.8.
D. 1.0.
Answer = 0.5