R.C.C Structure Design MCQs

RCC Structure Design MCQs

 1. Pick up the correct statement from the following?. 

A. The bent up bars at a support resist the negative bending moment
B. The bent up bars at a support resist the sharing force
C. The bending of bars near supports is generally at 45°
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

2. The load stress of a section can be reduced by______________?. 
A. Decreasing the lever arm
B. Increasing the total perimeter of bars
C. Replacing larger bars by greater number of small bars
D. Replacing smaller bars by greater number of greater bars. 
Answer = Replacing larger bars by greater number of small bars

3. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one direction, is______________?. 
A. 35
B. 25
C. 30
D. 20. 
Answer = 30

4. the column head support a flat slab, is generally kept The diameter of_____________?. 
A. 0.25 times the span length
B. 0.25 times the diameter of the column
C. 4.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
D. 5.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column. 
Answer = 0.25 times the span length

5. The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio of the end and intermediate spans is kept______________?. 
A. 0.7
B. 0.8
C. 0.9
D. 0.6. 
Answer = 0.9

6. In case the factor of safety against sliding is less than 1.5, a portion of slab is constructed downwards at the end of the heel slab, which is known as___________________?. 
A. A key
B. A cut-off wall
C. A rib
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

7. Lapped splices in tensile reinforcement are generally not used for bars of size larger than______________?. 
A. 18 mm diameter
B. 24 mm diameter
C. 30 mm diameter
D. 36 mm diameter. 
Answer = 36 mm diameter

8. According to I.S. : 456, slabs which span in two directions with corners held down, are assumed to be divided in each direction into middle strips and edge strips such that the width of the middle strip, is______________?. 
A. Half of the width of the slab
B. Two -third of the width of the slab
C. Three-fourth of the width of the slab
D. Four-fifth of the width of the slab. 
Answer = Three-fourth of the width of the slab

9. If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the footing generally adopted, is__________________?. 
A. Square
B. Rectangular
C. Trapezoidal
D. Triangular. 
Answer = Rectangular

10. Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of the same size should not be less than________________?. 
A. One diameter
B. 2.5 diameters
C. 3 diameters
D. 3.5 diameters. 
Answer = One diameter

11. For a ribbed slab______________?. 
A. Clear spacing between ribs shall not be greater than 4.5 cm
B. Width of the rib shall not be less than 7.5 cm
C. Overall depth of the slab shall not exceed four times the breadth of the rib
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

12. A very comfortable type of stairs is_______________?. 
A. Straight
B. Dog legged
C. Geometrical
D. Open newel. 
Answer = Open newel

13. The width of the flange of a L-beam, should be less than______________?. 
A. One- sixth of the effective span
B. Breadth of the rib + four times thickness of the slab
C. Breadth of the rib + half clear distance between ribs
D. Least of the above. 
Answer = Least of the above

14. Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do not exceed their least lateral dimension_______________?. 
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. Five times. 
Answer = Four times

15. A pre-stressed concrete member is preferred because___________________?. 
A. Its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress
B. Large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted
C. Removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

16. If is the net upward pressure on a square footing of side for a square column of side , the maximum bending moment is given by_________________?. 
A. B.M = pb (c – a)/4
B. B.M = pb (b – a)²/4
C. B.M = pb (b – a)²/8
D. B.M = pb (b + a)/8. 
Answer = B.M = pb (b – a)²/8

17. To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation, is__________________?. 
A. Kept uniform throughout
B. Increased gradually towards the edge
C. Decreased gradually towards the edge
D. Kept zero at the edge. 
Answer = Decreased gradually towards the edge

18. longitudinal bars and lateral stirrups, is__________________?. 
A. Stress in concrete × area of concrete
B. Stress in steel × area of steel
C. Stress in concrete × area of concrete + Stress in steel × area of steel
D. None of these. 
Answer = Stress in concrete × area of concrete + Stress in steel × area of steel

19. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: Tensile reinforcement bars of a rectangular beam_______________?. 
A. Are curtailed if not required to resist the bending moment
B. Are bent up at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement
C. Are bent down at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement
D. Are maintained at bottom to provide at least local bond stress. 
Answer = Are bent down at suitable places to serve as shear reinforcement

20. The minimum thickness of the cover at the end of a reinforcing bar should not be less than twice the diameter of the bar subject to a minimum of___________________?. 
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm. 
Answer = 25 mm

21. The maximum permissible size of aggregates to be used in casting the ribs of a slab, is______________?. 
A. 5 mm
B. 7.5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 15 mm. 
Answer = 10 mm

22. Top bars are extended to the projecting parts of the combined footing of two columns Ldistance apart for a distance of_______________?. 
A. 0.1 L from the outer edge of column
B. 0.1 L from the centre edge of column
C. Half the distance of projection
D. One -fourth the distance of projection. 
Answer = 0.1 L from the centre edge of column

23. is the pre- stressed force applied to tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area of cross section is and sectional modulus isThe minimum stress on the beam subjected to a maximum bending moment is________________?. 
A. f = (P/A) – (Z/M)
B. f = (A/P) – (M/Z)
C. f = (P/A) – (M/Z)
D. f = (P/A) – (M/6Z). 
Answer = f = (P/A) – (M/Z)

24. If C is creep coefficient, f is original pre-stress in concrete, m is modular ratio, E is Young's modulus of steel and e is shrinkage strain, the combined effect of creep and shrinkage is________________?. 
A. (1 – C) mf – eE
B. (C – 1)mf + eE
C. (C – 1)mf – eE
D. (1 – C)mf + eE. 
Answer = (C – 1)mf + eE

25. The design of heel slab of a retaining wall is based on the maximum bending moment due to______________?. 
A. Its own weight
B. Weight of the soil above it
C. Load of the surcharge, if any
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

26. The neutral axis of a T-beam exists_________________?. 
A. Within the flange
B. At the bottom edge of the slab
C. Below the slab
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

27. The minimum thickness of a flat slab is taken_________________?. 
A. L/32 for end panels without drops
B. L/36 for end panels without drops
C. L/36 for interior panels without drop
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

28. An R.C.C beam of 25 cm width has a clear span of 5 metres and carries a U.D.L. of 2000 kg/m inclusive of its self weight. If the lever arm of the section is 45 cm., the beam is__________________?. 
A. Safe in shear
B. Is safe with stirrups
C. Is safe with stirrups and inclined members
D. Needs revision of the section. 
Answer = Safe in shear

29. A pre-cast pile generally used, is______________?. 
A. Circular
B. Square
C. Octagonal
D. Square with corners chamfered. 
Answer = Square with corners chamfered

30. In a pre-stressed member it is advisable to use________________?. 
A. Low strength concrete only
B. High strength concrete only
C. Low strength concrete but high tensile steel
D. High strength concrete and high tensile steel. 
Answer = High strength concrete and high tensile steel

31. Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard length by providing_______________?. 
A. Straight bar splice
B. Hooked splice
C. Dowel splice
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

32. mutually perpendicular principal stresses acting on a soil mass, the normal stress If p1 and p2 are________________?. 
A. [(p – p p p to the principal plane carrying the principal stress p1, is: sin 2
B. [(p – p p p cos 2
C. [(p p p – p cos 2
D. [(p p p – p /2] sin 2. 
Answer = [(p p p – p cos 2

33. carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at two A pile of length points, the maximum, B.M. at the centre of the pile or at the points of suspension, is_________________?. 
A. WL/8
B. WL²/24
C. WL²/47
D. WL²/16. 
Answer = WL²/47

34. If is the uniformly distributed load on a circular slab of radius maximum positive radial moment at its centre, is__________________?. 
A. 3WR²/16
B. 2WR²/16
C. WR²/16
D. None of these. 
Answer = WR²/16

35. If the ratio of the span to the overall depth does not exceed 10, the stiffness of the beam will ordinarily be satisfactory in case of a__________________?. 
A. Simply supported beam
B. Continuous beam
C. Cantilever beam
D. None of these. 
Answer = Cantilever beam

36. For M 150 grade concrete (1:2:4) the moment of resistance factor is_________________?. 
A. 0.87
B. 8.50
C. 7.50
D. 5.80. 
Answer = 8.50

37. The spacing of transverse reinforcement of column is decided by the following consideration_______________?. 
A. The least lateral dimension of the column
B. Sixteen times the diameter of the smallest longitudinal reinforcing rods in the column
C. Forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

38. The self-weight of the footing, is_____________?. 
A. Not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
B. Also considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing
C. Not considered for calculating the area of the footing
D. Both A and C. 
Answer = Not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing

39. If the tendon is placed at an rectangular beam (sectional top edge)________________?. 
A. Is increased by PZ/e
B. Is increased by Pe/Z
C. Is decreased by Pe/Z
D. Remains unchanged. 
Answer = Is decreased by Pe/Z

40. The Young's modulus of elasticity of steel, is__________________?. 
A. 150 KN/mm2
B. 200 KN/mm2
C. 250 KN/mm2
D. 275 KN/mm2. 
Answer = 275 KN/mm2

41. Spacing of stirrups in a rectangular beam, is__________________?. 
A. Kept constant throughout the length
B. Decreased towards the centre of the beam
C. Increased at the ends
D. Increased at the centre of the beam. 
Answer = Increased at the centre of the beam

42. Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height h acts parallel to free surface and from the base at a distance of_____________________?. 
A. h /4
B. h/3
C. h/2
D. 2h/3. 
Answer = h/3

43. For initial estimate for a beam design, the width is assumed__________________?. 
A. 1/15th of span
B. 1/20th of span
C. 1/25th of span
D. 1/30th of span. 
Answer = 1/30th of span

44. A pre-stressed rectangular beam which carries two concentrated loads W at L/3 from either end, is provided with a bent tendon with tension P such that central one-third portion of the tendon remains parallel to the longitudinal axis, the maximum dip h is_____________________?. 
A. WL/P
B. WL/2P
C. WL/3P
D. WL/4P. 
Answer = WL/3P

45. Design of a two way slab simply supported on edges and having no provision to prevent the corners from lifting, is made by_________________?. 
A. Rankine formula
B. Marcus formula
C. Rankine Grashoff formula
D. Grashoff formula. 
Answer = Rankine Grashoff formula

46. As per IS : 456, the reinforcement in a column should not be less than________________?. 
A. 0.5% and not more than 5% of cross-sectional area
B. 0.6% and not more than 6% of cross-sectional area
C. 0.7% and not more than 7% of cross-sectional area
D. 0.8% and not more than 8% of cross-sectional area
Answer = 0.8% and not more than 8% of cross-sectional area 

47. Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab to a distance greater than____________?. 
A. 42 diameters from the centre of the column
B. 42 diameters from the inner edge of the column
C. 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column
D. 24 diameters from the centre of the column. 
Answer = 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column

48. The advantage of reinforced concrete, is due to_______________?. 
A. Monolithic character
B. Fire-resisting and durability
C. Economy because of less maintenance cost
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

49. The allowable tensile stress in mild steel stirrups, reinforced cement concrete, is_______________?. 
A. 1400 kg/cm2
B. 190 kg/cm2
C. 260 kg/cm2
D. 230 kg/cm2. 
Answer = 1400 kg/cm2

50. The thickness of the topping of a ribbed slab, varies between________________?. 
A. 3 cm to 5 cm
B. 5 cm to 8 cm
C. 8 cm to 10 cm
D. 12 cm to 15 cm. 
Answer = 5 cm to 8 cm

51. If the length of an intermediate span of a continuous slab is 5m, the length of the end span is kept_______________?. 
A. 4.5 m
B. 4.0 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 3.0 m. 
Answer = 4.5 m

52. The angle of internal friction of soil mass is the angle whose_______________?. 
A. Tangent is equal to the rate of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane
B. Sine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane
C. Cosine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance sliding on any internal inclined plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane
D. None of these. 
Answer = Tangent is equal to the rate of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane

53. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in two directions, is_________________?. 
A. 25
B. 30
C. 35
D. 40. 
Answer = 35

54. If the loading on a pre-stressed rectangular beam, is uniformly distributed, the tendon to be provided should be_______________?. 
A. Straight below centroidal axis
B. Parabolic with convexity downward
C. Parabolic with convexity upward
D. Straight above centroidal axis. 
Answer = Parabolic with convexity downward

55. If the maximum dip of a parabolic tendon carrying tension P is h and the effective length of the pre-stressed beam is L, the upward uniform pressure will be________________?. 
A. 8hp/ l
B. 8hp/l²
C. 8hl/p
D. 8hl/p². 
Answer = 8hp/l²

56. If depth of slab is 10 cm, width of web 30 cm, depth of web 50 cm, centre to centre distance of beams 3 m, effective span of beams 6 m, the effective flange width of the beam, is________________?. 
A. 200 cm
B. 300 cm
C. 150 cm
D. 100 cm. 
Answer = 150 cm

57. For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to its overall depth does not exceed________________?. 
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25. 
Answer = 20

58. Pick up the assumption for the design of a pre-stressed concrete member from the following_______________?. 
A. A transverse plane section remains a plane after bending
B. During deformation limits, Hook's law is equally applicable to concrete as well as to steel
C. Variation of stress in reinforcement due to changes in external loading is negligible
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

59. If the ratio of long and short spans of a two way slab with corners held down is r, the actual reduction of B.M. is given by. 
A. (5/6) (r/1 + r²) M
B. (5/6) (r²/1 + r²) M
C. (5/6) (r²/1 + r3) M
D. (5/6) (r²/1 + r4) M. 
Answer = (5/6) (r²/1 + r4) M

60. By over-reinforcing a beam, the moment of resistance can be increased not more than________________?. 
A. 10 %
B. 15 %
C. 20 %
D. 25 %. 
Answer = 25 %

61. A singly reinforced beam has breadth b, effective depth d, depth of neutral axis n and critical neutral axis n1. If fc and ft are permissible compressive and tensile stresses, the moment to resistance of the beam, is____________________?. 
A. bn (fc/2) (d – n/3)
B. Atft (d – n/3)
C. ½ n1 (1 – n1/3) cbd²
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

62. A part of the slab may be considered as the flange of the T-beam if__________________?. 
A. Flange has adequate reinforcement transverse to beam
B. It is built integrally with the beam
C. It is effectively bonded together with the beam
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

63. per unit run exerted by the Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height retained earth weighing per unit volume, is___________________?. 
A. wh [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]
B. wh² [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]
C. wh² [(1 – )/2(1 + sin )]
D. wh² [(1 – )/3(1 + sin )]. 
Answer = wh² [(1 – )/2(1 + sin )]

64. According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is kept less than______________?. 
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm. 
Answer = 15 cm

65. The live load to be considered for an accessible roof, is________________?. 
A. Nil
B. 75 kg/m3
C. 150 kg/m 2
D. 200 kg/cm 2. 
Answer = 150 kg/m 2

66. On an absolutely rigid foundation base, the pressure will________________?. 
A. Be more at the edges of the foundation
B. Be uniform
C. Not be uniform
D. Be zero at the centre of the foundation. 
Answer = Not be uniform

67. A reinforced concrete cantilever beam is 3.6 m long, 25 cm wide and has its lever arm 40 cm. It carries a load of 1200 kg at its free end and vertical stirrups can carry 1800 kg. Assuming concrete to carry one-third of the diagonal tension and ignoring the weight of the beam, the number of shear stirrups required, is___________________?. 
A. 30
B. 35
C. 40
D. 45. 
Answer = 40

68. A ribbed slab is provided for______________?. 
A. A plain ceiling
B. Thermal insulation
C. Acoustic insulation
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

69. To ensure that the hogging bending moment at two points of suspension of a pile of length L equals the sagging moment at its centre, the distances of the points of suspension from either end, is________________?. 
A. 0.107 L
B. 0.207 L
C. 0.307 L
D. 0.407 L. 
Answer = 0.207 L

70. The width of the rib of a T-beam, is generally kept between_______________?. 
A. 1/7 to 1/3 of rib depth
B. 1/3 to 1/2 of rib depth
C. 1/2 to 3/4 of rib depth
D. 1/3 to 2/3 of rib depth. 
Answer = 1/3 to 2/3 of rib depth

71. For the design of a simply supported T-beam the ratio of the effective span to the overall depth of the beam is limited to______________?. 
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 20. 
Answer = 20

72. is the pre-stressed force applied to the tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose area of cross section is and sectional modulus isThe maximum stress in the beam, subjected to a maximum bending moment , is_________________?. 
A. f = (P/A) + (Z/M)
B. f = (A/P) + (M/Z)
C. f = (P/A) + (M/Z)
D. f = (P/A) + (M/6Z). 
Answer = f = (P/A) + (M/Z)

73. The stresses developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth, are 62.5 kg/cm2 and 250 kg/cm 2 respectively. If m = 15, the depth of its neutral axis is_______________?. 
A. 20 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 35 cm. 
Answer = 30 cm

74. If the depth of actual neutral axis of a doubly reinforced beam______________?. 
A. Is greater than the depth of critical neutral axis, the concrete attains its maximum stress earlier
B. Is less than the depth of critical neutral axis, the steel in the tensile zone attains its maximum stress earlier
C. Is equal to the depth of critical neutral axis; the concrete and steel attain their maximum stresses simultaneously
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

75. The maximum diameter of a bar used in a ribbed slab, is______________?. 
A. 12 mm
B. 6 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 22 mm. 
Answer = 22 mm

76. A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral dimension, exceeds_________________?. 
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25. 
Answer = 15

77. The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between______________?. 
A. 6 cm to 7.5 cm
B. 8 cm to 10 cm
C. 10 cm to 12 cm
D. 12 cm to 15 cm. 
Answer = 8 cm to 10 cm

78. If the diameter of the main reinforcement in a slab is 16 mm, the concrete cover to main bars is_____________?. 
A. 10 mm
B. 12 mm
C. 14 mm
D. 16 mm. 
Answer = 16 mm

79. According to the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams______________?. 
A. Tension is resisted by tension steel
B. Compression is resisted by compression steel
C. Stress in tension steel equals the stress in compression steel
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

80. The stem of a cantilever retaining wall which retains earth level with top is 6 m. If the angle of repose and weight of the soil per cubic metre are 30° and 2000 kg respectively, the effective width of the stem at the bottom, is_______________?. 
A. 51.5
B. 52.5
C. 53.5
D. 54.5. 
Answer = 53.5

81. Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different sizes, should not be less than________________?. 
A. One diameter of thinner bar
B. One diameter of thicker bar
C. Twice the diameter of thinner bar
D. None of these. 
Answer = One diameter of thicker bar

82. A singly reinforced concrete beam of 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth is provided with 18.75 cm2 steel. If the modular ratio (m) is 15, the depth of the neutral axis, is_________________?. 
A. 20 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 35 cm. 
Answer = 30 cm

83. In testing a pile by load test, pile platform is loaded with one and half times the design load and a maximum settlement is noted. The load is gradually removed and the consequent rebound is measured. For a safe pile, the net settlement (i.e. total settlement minus rebound) per tonne of test load should not exceed________________?. 
A. 10 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 20 mm
D. 25 mm. 
Answer = 25 mm

84. An intermediate T-beam reinforced with two layers of tensile steel with clear cover 13 cm encasted with the floor of a hall 12 metres by 7 metres, is spaced at 3 metres from adjoining beams and if the width of the beam is 20 cm, the breadth of the flange is__________________?. 
A. 300 cm
B. 233 cm
C. 176 cm
D. 236 cm. 
Answer = 176 cm

85. Based on punching shear consideration, the overall depth of a combined footing under a column A, is_______________?. 
A. (Area of the column A × Safe punching stress)/Load on column A
B. (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A + Upward pressure × Area of the column)
C. (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A × Upward pressure × Area of the column)
D. None of these. 
Answer = (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A + Upward pressure × Area of the column)

86. In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided are______________?. 
A. 6 legged
B. 8 legged
C. 10 legged
D. 12 legged. 
Answer = 12 legged

87. If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at the centre of the slab, is________________?. 
A. WR²/16
B. 2WR²/16
C. 3WR²/16
D. Zero. 
Answer = 3WR²/16

88. The weight of reinforced concrete, is generally taken as______________?. 
A. 2200 kg/m3
B. 2300 kg/m3
C. 2400 kg/m3
D. 2500 kg/m3. 
Answer = 2400 kg/m3

89. A retaining wall and is the horizontal earth pressure, the factor of safety If is weight of against sliding, is_____________?. 
A. 1.0
B. 1.25
C. 1.5
D. 2.0. 
Answer = 1.5

90. In a beam the local bond stress Sb, is equal to_______________?. 
A. Shear force/(Leaver arm × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
B. Total perimeter of reinforcement/(Leaver arm × Shear force)
C. Leaver arm/(Shear force × Total perimeter of reinforcement)
D. Leaver arm/(Bending moment × Total perimeter of reinforcement). 
Answer = Shear force/(Leaver arm × Total perimeter of reinforcement)

91. With usual notations the depth of the neutral axis of a balanced section, is given by______________?. 
A. mc/t = (d – n)/n
B. t/mc = (d – n)/n
C. t/mc = (d + n)/n
D. mc/t = n/ (d – n). 
Answer = mc/t = n/ (d – n)

92. If the length of a wall on either side of a lintel opening is at least half of its effective span L, the load W carried by the lintel is equivalent to the weight of brickwork contained in an equilateral triangle, producing a maximum bending moment____________________?. 
A. WL/2
B. WL/4
C. WL/6
D. WL/8. 
Answer = WL/6

93. The section of a reinforced beam where most distant concrete fibre in compression and tension in steel attains permissible stresses simultaneously, is called_________________?. 
A. Balanced section
B. Economic section
C. Critical section
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

94. An under-reinforced section means_________________?. 
A. Steel is provided at the underside only
B. Steel provided is insufficient
C. Steel provided on one face only
D. Steel will yield first. 
Answer = Steel will yield first

95. The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than bar diameter x (Permissible stress in bar / Five times the bond stress) or____________________?. 
A. 12 bar diameters
B. 18 bar diameters
C. 24 bar diameters
D. 30 bar diameters. 
Answer = 24 bar diameters

96. In a doubly-reinforced beam if and the effective depth and is depth of critical neutral axis, the following relationship holds good______________?. 
A. mc/t = n/(d – n)
B. (m + c)/t = n/(d + n)
C. (t + c)/n = (d + n)/n
D. mc/t = (d – n)/t. 
Answer = mc/t = n/(d – n)

97. The system in which high tensile alloy steel bars (silica manganese steel) are used as prestressing tendons, is known as________________?. 
A. Freyssinet system
B. Magnel-Blaton system
C. C.C.L. standard system
D. Lee-McCall system. 
Answer = Lee-McCall system

98. The angle of repose of a soil is the maximum angle which the outer face of the soil mass makes_______________?. 
A. With the horizontal
B. With the vertical
C. With the perpendicular to the inclined plane of the soil
D. None of these. 
Answer = With the horizontal

99. A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by______________?. 
A. 10 %
B. 20 %
C. 40 %
D. 50 %. 
Answer = 50 %

100. A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to overall depth, is______________?. 
A. 2.5
B. 2.0
C. Less than 2
D. Less than 2.5. 
Answer = 2.5

101. The effective span of a simply supported slab, is_______________?. 
A. Distance between the centres of the bearings
B. Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall
C. Clear span plus effective depth of the slab
D. None of these. 
Answer = Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the wall

102. In favourable circumstances a 15 cm concrete cube after 28 days, attains a maximum crushing strength______________?. 
A. 100 kg/cm2
B. 200 kg/cm2
C. 300 kg/cm2
D. 400 kg/cm2. 
Answer = 400 kg/cm2

103. intensity of pressure at a depth h on a block of earth weighing w per unit If p1 is the vertical______________?. 
A. wh (1 – cos )/(1 + ) p2 is
B. wh (1 – sin )/(1 + ) )
C. wh (1 – tan )/(1 +
D. w (1 – cos )/h (1 + sin ). 
Answer = wh (1 – sin )/(1 + ) )

104. According to I.S. 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges, is kept less than______________?. 
A. 20 cm
B. 30 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 75 cm. 
Answer = 30 cm

105. If the permissible compressive stress for a concrete in bending is C kg/m2, the modular ratio is_____________?. 
A. 2800/C
B. 2300/2C
C. 2800/3C
D. 2800/C2. 
Answer = 2800/3C

106. Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than_______________?. 
A. 3 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 6 m. 
Answer = 6 m

107. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed_______________?. 
A. 0.15 %
B. 1.5 %
C. 4 %
D. 1 %. 
Answer = 4 %

108. The width of the flange of a T-beam should be less than_________________?. 
A. One- third of the effective span of the T -beam
B. Distance between the centres of T-beam
C. Breadth of the rib plus twelve times the thickness of the slab
D. Least of the above. 
Answer = Least of the above

109. For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum negative to maximum positive radial moment, is___________________?. 
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5. 
Answer = 2

110. The percentage of minimum reinforcement of the gross sectional area in slabs, is________________?. 
A. 0.10 %
B. 0.12 %
C. 0.15 %
D. 0.18 %. 
Answer = 0.15 %

111. According to I.S. : 456 specifications, the safe diagonal tensile stress for M 150 grade concrete, is_____________?. 
A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm 2
C. 15 kg/cm2
D. 20 kg/cm2. 
Answer = 5 kg/cm2

112. The maximum shear stress (qmax) in a rectangular beam is_______________?. 
A. 1.25 times the average
B. 1.50 times the average
C. 1.75 times the average
D. 2.0 times the average. 
Answer = 1.50 times the average

113. If K is a constant depending upon the ratio of the width of the slab to its effective span l, x is the distance of the concentrated load from the nearer support, bw is the width of the area of contact of the concentrated load measured parallel to the supported edge, the effective width of the slab be is_______________?. 
A. K/x (1 + x/d) + bw
B. Kx (1 – x/l) + bw
C. Kx (1 + x/l) + bw
D. All the above. 
Answer = Kx (1 – x/l) + bw

114. The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook, should be at least_______________?. 
A. Twice the diameter
B. Thrice the diameter
C. Four times the diameter
D. Seven times the diameter. 
Answer = Seven times the diameter

115. If is the overall height of a retaining wall retaining a surcharge, the width of the base slab usually provided, is________________?. 
A. 0.3 H
B. 0.4 H
C. 0.5 H
D. 0.7 H
Answer = 0.7 H 

116. If diameter of a reinforcement bar is d, the anchorage value of the hook is_______________?. 
A. 4d
B. 8d
C. 12d
D. 16d. 
Answer = 16d

117. As per I.S. 456 – 1978, the pH value of water shall be_______________?. 
A. Less than 6
B. Equal to 6
C. Not less than 6
D. Equal to 7. 
Answer = Not less than 6

118. For M 150 mix concrete, according to I.S. specifications, local bond stress, is_________________?. 
A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm 2
C. 15 kg/cm2
D. 20 kg/cm2. 
Answer = 10 kg/cm 2

119. foundation is assumed as The weight of a_____________?. 
A. 5% of wall weight
B. 7% of wall weight
C. 10% of wall weight
D. 12% of wall weight. 
Answer = 10% of wall weight

120. If the diameter of longitudinal bars of a square column is 16 mm, the diameter of lateral ties should not be less than____________________?. 
A. 4 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 8 mm. 
Answer = 5 mm

121. In a combined footing if shear stress does not exceed 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided are________________?. 
A. 6 legged
B. 8 legged
C. 10 legged
D. 12 legged. 
Answer = 8 legged

122. The maximum shear stress (q) in concrete of a reinforced cement concrete beam is_____________?. 
A. Shear force/(Lever arm × Width)
B. Lever arm/(Shear force × Width)
C. Width/(Lever arm × Shear force)
D. (Shear force × Width)/Lever arm. 
Answer = Shear force/(Lever arm × Width)

123. The thickness of base slab of a retaining wall generally provided, is_____________?. 
A. One half of the width of the stem at the bottom
B. One -third of the width of the stem at the bottom
C. One fourth of the width of the steam at the bottom
D. Width of the stem at the bottom. 
Answer = Width of the stem at the bottom

124. Distribution of shear intensity over a rectangular section of a beam, follows_________________?. 
A. A circular curve
B. A straight line
C. A parabolic curve
D. An elliptical curve. 
Answer = A parabolic curve

125. In a singly reinforced beam, if the permissible stress in concrete reaches earlier than that in steel, the beam section is called________________?. 
A. Under-reinforced section
B. Over reinforced section
C. Economic section
D. Critical section. 
Answer = Over reinforced section

126. Distribution reinforcement in a simply supported slab, is provided to distribute_______________?. 
A. Load
B. Temperature stress
C. Shrinkage stress
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

127. If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the main bars of the columns, are_____________?. 
A. Continued up
B. Bent inward at the floor level
C. Stopped just below the floor level and separate lap bars provided
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

128. The minimum number of main steel bars provided in R.C.C________________?. 
A. Rectangular columns is 4
B. Circular columns is 6
C. Octagonal columns is 8
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

129. A short column 20 cm × 20 cm in section is reinforced with 4 bars whose area of cross section is 20 sq. cm. If permissible compressive stresses in concrete and steel are 40 kg/cm2 and 300 kg/cm2, the Safe load on the column, should not exceed_______________?. 
A. 4120 kg
B. 41,200 kg
C. 412,000 kg
D. None of these. 
Answer = 41,200 kg

130. If T and R are tread and rise respectively of a stair, then_______________?. 
A. 2R + T = 60
B. R + 2 T = 60
C. 2R + T = 30
D. R + 2 T = 30. 
Answer = 2R + T = 60

131. For stairs spanning l metres longitudinally between supports at the bottom and top of a flight carrying a load w per unit horizontal area, the maximum bending moment per metre width, is_______________?. 
A. wl²/4
B. wl²/8
C. wl²/12
D. wl²/16. 
Answer = wl²/16

132. In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured from its compression edge to_________________?. 
A. Tensile edge
B. Tensile reinforcement
C. Neutral axis of the beam
D. Longitudinal central axis. 
Answer = Tensile reinforcement

133. Though the effective depth of a T-beam is the distance between the top compression edge to the centre of the tensile reinforcement, for heavy loads, it is taken as__________________?. 
A. 1/8th of the span
B. 1/10th of the span
C. 1/12th of the span
D. 1/16th of the span. 
Answer = 1/12th of the span

134. On piles, the drop must be at least_______________?. 
A. 80 cm
B. 100 cm
C. 120 cm
D. 140 cm. 
Answer = 120 cm

135. In a pre-stressed beam carrying an external load W with a bent tendon is having angle of -stressed load P. The net downward load at the centre is_________________?. 
A. W – 2P
B. W – P
C. W – P
D. W – 2P. 
Answer = W – 2P

136. The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than_____________?. 
A. 6 mm
B. 8 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 12 mm. 
Answer = 12 mm

137. Steel beam theory is used for_______________?. 
A. Design of simple steel beams
B. Steel beams encased in concrete
C. Doubly reinforced beams ignoring compressive stress in concrete
D. Beams if shear exceeds 4 times allowable shear stress. 
Answer = Doubly reinforced beams ignoring compressive stress in concrete

138. To have pressure wholly compressive under the base of a retaining wall of width b, the resultant of the weight of the wall and the pressure exerted by the retained, earth should have eccentricity not more than________________?. 
A. b/3
B. b/4
C. b/5
D. b/6. 
Answer = b/6

139. Post tensioning system_______________?. 
A. Was widely used in earlier days
B. Is not economical and hence not generally used
C. Is economical for large spans and is adopted now a days
D. None of these. 
Answer = None of these

140. The horizontal portion of a step in a stairs case, is known as_________________?. 
A. Rise
B. Flight
C. Winder
D. Tread. 
Answer = Tread

141. If the average bending stress is 6 kg/cm2 for M 150 grade concrete, the length of embedment of a bar of diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications, is__________________?. 
A. 28 d
B. 38 d
C. 48 d
D. 58 d. 
Answer = 58 d

142. Piles are usually driven by________________?. 
A. Diesel operated hammer
B. Drop hammer
C. Single acting steam hammer
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

143. In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging bending moment occurs at. 
A. Less loaded column
B. More loaded column
C. A point of the maximum shear force
D. A point of zero shear force. 
Answer = A point of zero shear force

144. The live load to be considered for an inaccessible roof, is______________?. 
A. Nil
B. 75 kg/m2
C. 150 kg/cm 2
D. 200 kg/m2. 
Answer = 75 kg/m2

145. If W is total load per unit area on a panel, D is the diameter of the column head, L is the span in two directions, then the sum of the maximum positive bending moment and average of the negative bending moment for the design of the span of a square flat slab, should not be less than________________?. 
A. WL/12 (L – 2D/3)²
B. WL/10 (L + 2D/3)²
C. WL/10 (L – 2D/3)²
D. WL/12 (L – D/3)². 
Answer = WL/10 (L – 2D/3)²

146. If a bent tendon is required to balance a concentrated load W at the centre of the span L, the central dip h must be at least________________?. 
A. WL /P
B. WL/2P
C. WL/3P
D. WL/4P. 
Answer = WL/4P

147. The radius of a bar bend to form a hook, should not be less than_______________?. 
A. Twice the diameter
B. Thrice the diameter
C. Four times the diameter
D. Five times the diameter. 
Answer = Twice the diameter

148. A circular slab subjected to external loading, deflects to form a_________________?. 
A. Semi-hemisphere
B. Ellipsoid
C. Paraboloid
D. None of these. 
Answer = Paraboloid

149. The reinforced concrete beam which has width 25 cm, lever arm 40 cm, shear force 6t/cm2, safe shear stress 5 kg/cm2 and B.M. 24 mt________________?. 
A. Is safe in shear
B. Is unsafe in shear
C. Is over safe in shear
D. Needs redesigning. 
Answer = Is unsafe in shear

150. If a rectangular pre-stressed beam of an effective span of 5 meters and carrying a total load 3840 kg/m, is designed by the load balancing method, the central dip of the parabolic tendon should be_________________?. 
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm. 
Answer = 10 cm

151. The anchorage value of a hook is assumed sixteen times the diameter of the bar if the angle of the bend, is___________________?. 
A. 30°
B. 40°
C. 45°
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

152. The number of treads in a flight is equal to_______________?. 
A. Risers in the flight
B. Risers plus one
C. Risers minus one
D. None of these. 
Answer = Risers minus one

153. A simply supported beam 6 m long and of effective depth 50 cm, carries a uniformly distributed load 2400 kg/m including its self weight. If the lever arm factor is 0.85 and permissible tensile stress of steel is 1400 kg/cm2, the area of steel required, is___________________?. 
A. 14 cm 2
B. 15 cm2
C. 16 cm2
D. 17 cm2. 
Answer = 16 cm2

154. The amount of reinforcement for main bars in a slab, is based upon___________________?. 
A. Minimum bending moment
B. Maximum bending moment
C. Maximum shear force
D. Minimum shear force. 
Answer = Maximum bending moment

155. The minimum cube strength of concrete used for a pre-stressed member, is________________?. 
A. 50 kg/cm2
B. 150 kg/cm 2
C. 250 kg/cm2
D. 350 kg/cm2. 
Answer = 350 kg/cm2

156. If Sb, is the average bond stress on a bar of diameter subjected to maximum stress , the length of the embedment is given by_____________?. 
A. l = dt/Sb
B. l = dt/2Sb
C. l = dt/3Sb
D. l = dt/4Sb. 
Answer = l = dt/4Sb

157. effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced If d and n are the beam, the lever arm of the beam, is_________________?. 
A. d
B. n
C. d + n/3
D. d – n/3. 
Answer = d – n/3

158. bending moment of a simply supported slab is M Kg.cm, the effective depth of the If the maximum slab is (where Q is M.R. factor)________________?. 
A. M/100Q
B. M/ Q
C. M/Q)
D. (M/100Q). 
Answer = (M/100Q)

159. If the sides of a slab simply supported on edges and spanning in two directions are equal, the maximum bending moment is multiplied by_________________?. 
A. 0.2
B. 0.3
C. 0.4
D. 0.5. 
Answer = 0.5

160. The width of the flange of a T-beam, which may be considered to act effectively with the rib depends upon____________________?. 
A. Breadth of the rib
B. Overall thickness of the rib
C. Centre to centre distance between T-beams
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

161. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The intensity of horizontal shear stress at the elemental part of a beam section, is directly proportional to__________________?. 
A. Shear force
B. Area of the section
C. Distance of the C.G. of the area from its neutral axis
D. Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis. 
Answer = Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis

162. Pick up the true statement from the following?. 
A. Plain ceiling provides the best property diffusing light
B. In the absence of beams, it is easier to install piping
C. In the absence of beams, it is easier to paint
D. All the above. 
Answer = All the above

163. Pick up the correct statement from the following?. 
A. A pile is a slender member which transfers the load through its lower end on a strong strata
B. A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil 
C. A pile is a slender member which transfers its load by friction
D. A pile is a cylindrical body of concrete which transfers the load at a depth greater than its width. 
Answer = A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil 

164. Dimensions of a beam need be changed if the shear stress is more than_______________?. 
A. 10 kg/cm2
B. 15 kg/cm2
C. 20 kg/cm2
D. 25 kg/cm2. 
Answer = 20 kg/cm2

165. The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab, is_______________?. 
A. One-fourth the width of the panel
B. Half the width of the panel
C. Radius of the column
D. Diameter of the column. 
Answer = Half the width of the panel

166. The length of lap in tension reinforcement should not be less than the bar diameter × (actual tension / four times the permissible average bond stress) if it is more than_______________?. 
A. 18 bar diameters
B. 24 bar diameters
C. 30 bar diameters
D. 36 bar diameters. 
Answer = 30 bar diameters

167. As the percentage of steel increases________________?. 
A. Depth of neutral axis decreases
B. Depth of neutral axis increases
C. Lever arm increases
D. Lever arm decreases. 
Answer = Depth of neutral axis increases

168. For a number of columns constructed in a rcjw, the type of foundation provided, is_______________?. 
A. Footing
B. Raft
C. Strap
D. Strip. 
Answer = Strip

169. If the modular ratio is , steel ratio is and overall depth of a beam is , the depth of the critical neutral axis of the beam, is___________________?. 
A. [m/(m – r)] d
B. [m/(m + r)] d
C. [(m + r)/ m] d
D. [(r – m)/m] d. 
Answer = [m/(m + r)] d

170. In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at________________?. 
A. 1/4th of the span
B. 1/5th of the span
C. 1/6th of the span
D. 1/7th of the span. 
Answer = 1/7th of the span

171. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following?. 
A. In the stem of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided near the earth side
B. In the toe slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the bottom of the slab
C. In the heel slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the top of the slab
D. None of these. 
Answer = None of these

172. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure_______________?. 
A. discharge
B. velocity of gas
C. pressure intensity of gas
D. pressure intensity of liquid. 
Answer = velocity of gas

173. Density of water is maximum at ___________________?. 
A. 0°C
B. 0°K
C. 4°C
D. 100°C. 
Answer = 100°C

174. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called ________________?. 
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
Answer = cohesion

175. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as________________?. 
A. compressibility
B. surface tension
C. cohesion
D. adhesion
Answer = cohesion

176. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m” _______________?. 
A. at norma] pressure of 760 mm
B. at 4°C temperature
C. at mean sea level
D. all the above
Answer = all the above

177. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point, then flow is said to be____________________?. 
A. quasi static
B. steady state
C. laminar
D. uniform
Answer = uniform

178. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if_________________?. 
A. it is incompressible
B. it has uniform viscosity
C. it has zero viscosity
D. it is at rest.. 
Answer = it is at rest.

179. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value of 'g' at this place is___________________?. 
A. 10m/sec2
B. 9.81 m/sec2
C. 10.2/m sec
D. 9.75 m/sec2
Answer = 10m/sec2

180. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of water is____________________?. 
A. more
B. less
C. same
D. more or less depending on size of glass tube
Answer = more

181. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids __________________?. 
A. remains same
B. increases
C. decreases
D. shows erratic behaviour
Answer = shows erratic behaviour

182. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as____________________?. 
A. specific viscosity
B. viscosity index
C. kinematic viscosity
D. coefficient of viscosity
Answer = kinematic viscosity

183. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity _________________?. 
A. pascal
B. poise
C. stoke
D. faraday
Answer = stoke

184. Alcohol is used in manometers because_____________________?. 
A. it has low vapour pressure
B. it is clearly visible
C. it has low surface tension
D. it can provide longer column due to low density
Answer = it can provide longer column due to low density

185. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains ________________?. 
A. dissolved air
B. dissolved salt
C. suspended matter
D. all of the above
Answer = all of the above

186. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to force of _________________?. 
A. surface tension
B. viscosity
C. friction
D. cohesion
Answer = surface tension

187. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of ________________?. 
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
Answer = surface tension

188. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be_________________?. 
A. higher than the surface of liquid
B. the same as the surface of liquid
C. lower than the surface of liquid
D. unpredictable
Answer = lower than the surface of liquid

189. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be____________________?. 
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
Answer = 2000 kg

190. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called_________________?. 
A. upthrust
B. buoyancy
C. center of pressure
D. all the above are correct
Answer = buoyancy

191. The buoyancy depends on__________________?. 
A. mass of liquid displaced
B. viscosity of the liquid
C. pressure of the liquid displaced
D. depth of immersion
Answer = mass of liquid displaced

192. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury ?. 
A. the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
B. the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
C. whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level
D. metal piece will sink to the bottom
Answer = whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury level

193. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of_________________?. 
A. pressure
B. flow
C. shape
D. volume
Answer = shape

194. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following______________?. 
A. Newton's law of motion
B. Newton's law of viscosity
C. Pascal' law
D. Continuity equation
Answer = Continuity equation

195. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as_________________?. 
A. volumetric strain
B. volumetric index
C. compressibility
D. adhesion
Answer = compressibility

196. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is________________?. 
A. incompressible
B. inviscous
C. viscous and incompressible
D. inviscous and incompressible. 
Answer = inviscous and incompressible

197. Fluid is a substance that_______________?. 
A. cannot be subjected to shear forces
B. always expands until it fills any container
C. has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
D. cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
Answer = cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force

198. Practical fluids____________________?. 
A. are viscous
B. possess surface tension
C. are compressible
D. possess all the above properties
Answer = possess all the above properties

199. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known as___________________?. 
A. fluid
B. water
C. gas
D. ideal fluid. 
Answer = ideal fluid

200. Liquids________________?. 
A. cannot be compressed
B. occupy definite volume
C. are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
D. none of the above. 
Answer = none of the above

201. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is_______________?. 
A. 1
B. 1000
C. 100
D. 101.9
Answer = 101.9

202. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as_________________?. 
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. surface tension
D. viscosity
Answer = surface tension

203. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted to each other is called________________?. 
A. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. viscosity
D. compressibility
Answer = adhesion

204. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to_________________?. 
A. 1000 N/m3
B. 10000 N/m3
C. 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
D. 9.81 xlO6N/m3
Answer = 9.81 xlO3 N/m3

205. Which of the following is dimensionless ________________?. 
A. specific weight
B. specific volume
C. specific speed
D. specific gravity
Answer = specific gravity

206. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when the fluid is________________?. 
A. moving
B. viscous
C. viscous and static
D. viscous and moving. 
Answer = viscous and moving

207. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property_________________?. 
A. cohesion
B. adhesion
C. viscosity
D. surface tension
Answer = surface tension

208. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain_________________?. 
A. tensile stress
B. compressive stress
C. shear stress
D. bending stress
Answer = shear stress

209. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure___________________?. 
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. increases first upto certain limit and then decreases
Answer = increases

210. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle_________________?. 
A. law of gravitation
B. Archimedes principle
C. principle of buoyancy
D. all of the above
Answer = all of the above

211. In a static fluid__________________?. 
A. resistance to shear stress is small
B. fluid pressure is zero
C. linear deformation is small
D. only normal stresses can exist
Answer = only normal stresses can exist

212. A perfect gas_________________?. 
A. has constant viscosity
B. has zero viscosity
C. is incompressible
D. none of the above. 
Answer = none of the above

213. The increase of temperature results in_________________?. 
A. increase in viscosity of gas
B. increase in viscosity of liquid
C. decrease in viscosity of gas
D. decrease in viscosity of liquid
Answer = decrease in viscosity of liquid

214. Surface tension has the units of____________________?. 
A. newtons/m
B. newtons/m
C. new tons/m
D. newtons
Answer = new tons/m

215. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is________________?. 
A. linear
B. parabolic
C. hyperbolic
D. inverse type
Answer = linear

216. The units of viscosity are__________________?. 
A. metres2 per sec
B. kg sec/metre
C. newton-sec per metre2
D. newton-sec per metre
Answer = kg sec/metre

217. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon________________?. 
A. pressure
B. distance
C. level
D. density. 
Answer = density

218. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity__________________?. 
A. Red wood
B. Say bolt
C. Engler
D. Orsat
Answer = Orsat

219. Dimensions of surface tension are_________________?. 
A. MlL°T2
B. MlL°Tx
C. MlL r2
D. MlL2T2
Answer = MlL°T2

220. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of mercury will be following cm of water___________________?. 
A. 51 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 52 cm
D. 52.2 cm
Answer = 51 cm

221. If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any point from the surface, then pressure intensity at that point will be____________________?. 
A. h
B. wh
C. w/h
D. h/w
Answer = wh

222. The units of kinematic viscosity are_______________?. 
A. metres2 per sec
B. kg sec/meter
C. newton-sec per meter
D. newton-sec per meter
Answer = metres2 per sec

223. 4-61. Kinematic viscosity is equal to________________?. 
A. dynamic viscosity/density
B. dynamicviscosity x density
C. density/dynamic viscosity
D. 1/dynamicviscosity x density
Answer = dynamic viscosity/density

224. A one dimensional flow is one which___________________?. 
A. is uniform flow
B. is steady uniform flow
C. takes place in straight lines
D. involves zero transverse component of flow
Answer = involves zero transverse component of flow

225. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to________________?. 
A. 25 kN/m2
B. 245 kN/m2
C. 2500 kN/m2
D. 2.5kN/m2
Answer = 245 kN/m2

226. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is suspended into water without touching sides of bucket from another support. The spring balance reading will__________________?. 
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain same
D. increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
Answer = remain same

227. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion forces are_________________?. 
A. less
B. more
C. equal
D. less at low temperature and more at high temperature
Answer = more

228. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is known as____________________?. 
A. meta center
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. center of gravity
Answer = center of pressure

229. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body. This definition is according to____________________?. 
A. Buoyancy
B. Equilibrium of a floating body
C. Archimedes' principle
D. Bernoulli's theorem
Answer = Archimedes' principle

230. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are_______________?. 
A. the meta-center should lie above the center of gravity
B. the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
C. a righting couple should be formed
D. all the above are correct
Answer = all the above are correct

231. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called__________________?. 
A. upthrust
B. buoyancy
C. center of pressure
D. all the above are correct
Answer = buoyancy

232. Poise is the unit of________________?. 
A. surface tension
B. capillarity
C. viscosity
D. shear stress in fluids
Answer = viscosity

233. Metacentric height is given as the distance between_______________?. 
A. the center of gravity of the body andthe meta center
B. the center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
C. the center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
D. center of buoyancy and metacentre
Answer = the center of gravity of the body andthe meta center

234. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be___________________?. 
A. 500 kg
B. 1000 kg
C. 1500 kg
D. 2000 kg
Answer = 2000 kg

235. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its_______________?. 
A. specific weight
B. specific mass
C. specific gravity
D. specific density
Answer = specific gravity

236. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed body is called________________?. 
A. meta-center
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. center of gravity
Answer = center of buoyancy

237. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon____________________?. 
A. the nature of the liquid and the solid
B. the material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
C. both of die above
D. any one of the above
Answer = both of die above

238. Rain drops are spherical because of____________________?. 
A. viscosity
B. air resistance
C. surface tension forces
D. atmospheric pressure
Answer = surface tension forces

239. If the surface of liquid is convex, men_________________?. 
A. cohesion pressure is negligible
B. cohesion pressure is decreased
C. cohesion pressure is increased
D. there is no cohesion pressure
Answer = cohesion pressure is increased

240. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided______________?. 
A. at the inlet
B. at the outlet
C. at the summit
D. ay nay point between inlet and outlet
Answer = at the summit

241. The peoperty by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its different layers is called_________________?. 
A. surface tension
B. co-efficient of viscosity
C. viscosity
D. osmosis
Answer = viscosity

242. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are_______________?. 
A. metres2 per sec
B. kg sec/meter
C. newton-sec per meter
D. newton-sec2 per meter
Answer = newton-sec per meter

243. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension wim increase in size of tube will_______________?. 
A. increase
B. remain unaffected
C. may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
D. decrease
Answer = decrease

244. Capillary action is due to the__________________?. 
A. surface tension
B. cohesion of the liquid
C. adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
D. all of the above
Answer = all of the above

245. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to_________________?. 
A. Boyle's law
B. Archimedes principle
C. Pascal's law
D. Newton's formula
Answer = Pascal's law

246. The continuity equation is connected with_______________?. 
A. viscous/unviscous fluids
B. compressibility of fluids
C. conservation of mass
D. steady/unsteady flow
Answer = conservation of mass

247. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable membrane is called _______________?. 
A. viscosity
B. osmosis
C. surface tension
D. cohesion
Answer = osmosis

248. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is__________________?. 
A. less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
B. equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. zero
Answer = less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface

249. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is_____________?. 
A. p = Txr
B. p = T/r
C. p = T/2r
D. p = 2T/r. 
Answer = p = 2T/r

250. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is ap-proximately_______________?. 
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 30 mm. 
Answer = 30 mm

251. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to the______________?. 
A. force of adhesion
B. force of cohesion
C. force of friction
D. force of diffusion
Answer = force of cohesion

252. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ___________________?. 
A. atmospheric pressure
B. surface tension
C. force of adhesion
D. force of cohesion
Answer = surface tension

253. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is________________?. 
A. less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
B. equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. zero
Answer = less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface

254. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such that it is not more than_______________?. 
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
D. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
Answer = 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient

255. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is________________?. 
A. p = Txr
B. p = T/r
C. p = T/2r
D. p = 2T/r
Answer = p = 2T/r

256. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water is ap-proximately____________________?. 
A. 1 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 30 mm. 
Answer = 30 mm

257. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to___________________?. 
A. atmospheric pressure
B. surface tension
C. force of adhesion
D. force of cohesion
Answer = surface tension

258. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest possible area due to the_______________?. 
A. force of adhesion
B. force of cohesion
C. force of friction
D. force of diffusion
Answer = force of cohesion

259. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases____________________?. 
A. linearly
B. first slowly and then steeply
C. first steeply and then gradually
D. unpredictable
Answer = first slowly and then steeply

260. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be completely submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of_________________?. 
A. 1
B. 1.2
C. 0.8
D. 0.75
Answer = 0.75

261. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between________________?. 
A. shear stress anctthejiate of angular distortion
B. shear stress and viscosity
C. shear stress, velocity and viscosity
D. pressure, velocity and viscosity
Answer = shear stress anctthejiate of angular distortion

262. Pressure of the order of 10″' torr can be measured by_______________ ?. 
A. Bourdon tube
B. Pirani Gauge
C. micro-manometer
D. ionisastion gauge
Answer = ionisastion gauge

263. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on the principle of_____________________?. 
A. gas law
B. Boyle's law
C. Charle's law
D. Pascal's law
Answer = Boyle's law

264. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure__________________?. 
A. decreases linearly with elevation
B. remains constant
C. varies in the same way as the density
D. increases exponentially with elevation
Answer = varies in the same way as the density

265. Barometer is used to measure__________________?. 
A. pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. atmospheric pressure
C. very low pressure
D. difference of pressure between two points
Answer = atmospheric pressure

266. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an aeroplane ________________?. 
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. hot wire anemometer
D. pitot tube. 
Answer = pitot tube

267. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine moving in deep sea_________________?. 
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. hot wire anemometer
D. pitot tube. 
Answer = pitot tube

268. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature____________________?. 
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. unpredictable
Answer = decreases

269. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a will___________________?. 
A. sink to bottom
B. float over fluid
C. partly immersed
D. be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
Answer = be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface

270. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its ______________?. 
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. density
D. absolute temperature. 
Answer = absolute temperature

271. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the application of Bernoulli's theorem __________________?. 
A. Venturimeter
B. Orifice plate
C. nozzle
D. all of the above. 
Answer = all of the above

272. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature___________________?. 
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. unpredictable
Answer = increases

273. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following_______________?. 
A. inertial force and gravity
B. viscous force and inertial force
C. viscous force and buoyancy force
D. pressure force and inertial force
Answer = pressure force and inertial force

274. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity __________________?. 
A. U-tube with water
B. inclined U-tube
C. U-tube with mercury
D. micro-manometer with water
Answer = micro-manometer with water

275. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on __________________?. 
A. Pascal's law
B. Dalton's law of partial pressure
C. Newton's law of viscosity. 
D. Avogadro's hypothesis
Answer = Pascal's law

276. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually inclined by angle 9. Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to_________________?. 
A. sin 9
B. sin 9
C. casS
D. cos 9
Answer = sin 9

277. The resultant of all normal pressures acts_________________?. 
A. at e.g. of body
B. at center of pressure
C. vertically upwards
D. at metacentre
Answer = vertically upwards

278. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and___________________?. 
A. water surface
B. center of pressure
C. center of gravity
D. center of buoyancy
Answer = center of gravity

279. The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point____________________?. 
A. on the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts
B. on the surface at which gravitational force acis
C. at which all hydraulic forces meet
D. similar to metacentre
Answer = on the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts

280. Centre of pressure compared to e.g. is______________?. 
A. above it
B. below it
C. at same point
D. above or below depending on area of body
Answer = below it

281. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its tendency to uplift the sub-merged body is called___________________?. 
A. upthrust
B. reaction
C. buoyancy
D. metacentre
Answer = buoyancy

282. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its specific gravity is__________________?. 
A. 1
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6. 
Answer = 6

283. Center of buoyancy is the___________________?. 
A. centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
B. center of pressure of displaced volume
C. e.g. of floating 'body
D. does not exist
Answer = centroid of the displaced volume of fluid

284. The horizontal component of buoyant force is__________________?. 
A. negligible
B. same as buoyant force
C. zero
D. non of these. 
Answer = zero

285. A body floats in stable equilibrium________________?. 
A. when its meatcentric height is zero
B. when the metancentre is above e.g
C. when its e.g. is below it's center of buoyancy
D. metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
Answer = when the metancentre is above e.g

286. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at the centriod, if __________________?. 
A. the area is horizontal
B. the area is vertical
C. the area is inclined
D. all of the above
Answer = all of the above

287. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge at vater surface. The hydrostatic force on square surface is __________________?. 
A. 9,000 kg
B. 13,500 kg
C. 18,000 kg
D. 27,000 kg
Answer = 13,500 kg

288. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm”, the pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be _____________________?. 
A. 2 meters of water column
B. 3 meters of water column
C. 5 meters of water column
D. 6 meters of water Column
Answer = 6 meters of water Column

289. Choose the wrong statement___________________?. 
A. The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any surface is equal to the normal force on the vertical projection of the surface
B. The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the vertical projection
C. The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the weight of the volume of the liquid above the area
D. he vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume
Answer = he vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume

290. The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide and 6 m high, when the water surface coincides with the top of the gate, is ______________________?. 
A. 2.4 m
B. 3.0 m
C. 4.0 m
D. 2.5 m
Answer = 3.0 m

291. Metacentre is the point of intersection of _________________________?. 
A. vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
B. buoyant force and the center line of body
C. mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
D. all of the above
Answer = buoyant force and the center line of body

292. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at _________________?. 
A. bottom surface of the body
B. e.g. of the body
C. metacentre
D. all points on the surface of the body
Answer = all points on the surface of the body

293. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in a fluid will be lifted up by a force equal to __________________?. 
A. the weight of the body
B. more than the weight of the body
C. less than the weight of the body
D. weight of the fluid displaced by the body
Answer = weight of the fluid displaced by the body

294. Buoyant force is___________________?. 
A. resultant force acting on a floating body
B. equal to the volume of liquid displaced
C. force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
D. the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
Answer = the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it

295. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as ________________________?. 
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold's number
D. Weber's number
Answer = Weber's number

296. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about ___________________?. 
A. e.g. of body
B. center of pressure
C. center of buoyancy
D. metacentre
Answer = metacentre

297. A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The model scale is 1: 225. How long should it take to empty the prototype ?. 
A. 900 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
D. 4 x V225 minutes. 
Answer = 4 x V225 minutes

298. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be_________________ ?. 
A. below the center of gravity
B. below the center of buoyancy
C. above the center of buoyancy
D. above the center of gravity. 
Answer = above the center of gravity

299. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The prototype is expected to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been used ?. 
A. 1 : 5
B. 1 : 2.5
C. 1 :25
D. 1:V5″
Answer = 1 : 5

300. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic similarity, at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?. 
A. 10 m/sec
B. 25 m/sec
C. 2 m/sec
D. 50 m/sec
Answer = 2 m/sec

301. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as _____________________?. 
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Reynold's number
D. Weber's number
Answer = Mach number

302. For a floating body to be in equilibrium __________________?. 
A. meta center should be above e.g.
B. center of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
C. a righting couple should be formed
D. all of the above
Answer = all of the above

303. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water surface will___________________?. 
A. be horizontal
B. make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
C. make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
D. any one of above is possible
Answer = make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane

304. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is______________________?. 
A. at the centroid
B. above the centroid
C. below the centroid
D. at metacentre
Answer = below the centroid

305. The two important forces for a floating body are___________________?. 
A. buoyancy, gravity
B. buoyancy, pressure
C. buoyancy, inertial
D. inertial, gravity
Answer = buoyancy, gravity

306. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts through _________________?. 
A. center of gravity
B. center of pressure
C. metacentre
D. center of buoyancy
Answer = center of pressure

307. Differential monometer is used to measure _______________________?. 
A. pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. atmospheric pressure
C. very low pressure
D. difference of pressure between two points
Answer = difference of pressure between two points

308. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the ___________________?. 
A. submerged body
B. volume of the floating body
C. volume of the fluid vertically above the body
D. displaced volume of the fluid
Answer = displaced volume of the fluid

309. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is 0.1 kg/cm”. The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be ___________________?. 
A. 2 meters of water column
B. 3 meters of water column
C. 3.5 meters of water column
D. 4 m of water column
Answer = 3 meters of water column

310. In an immersed body, center of pressure is ____________________?. 
A. at the center of gravity
B. above the center of gravity
C. below be center of gravity
D. could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and liquid
Answer = below be center of gravity

311. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will be________________?. 
A. same
B. higher
C. lower
D. lower/higher depending on weight of body
Answer = lower

312. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid ___________________?. 
A. only when the fluid is frictionless
B. only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
C. when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
D. irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
Answer = when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer

313. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below the free water surface will be ___________________?. 
A. 1000 kg
B. 4000 kg
C. 2000 kg
D. 8000 kg
Answer = 1000 kg

314. Rotameter is a device used to measure____________________?. 
A. absolute pressure
B. velocity of fluid
C. flow
D. rotation
Answer = flow

315. Flow of water in a pipe about 3 meters in diameter can be measured by_________________?. 
A. orifice plate
B. venturi
C. rotameter
D. pitot tube
Answer = pitot tube

316. True one-dimensional flow occurs when___________________?. 
A. the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane
Answer = the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are identical

317. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is__________________?. 
A. constant
B. variable
C. zero
D. zero under limiting conditions
Answer = zero

318. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is___________________?. 
A. steady
B. unsteady
C. uniform
D. laminar
Answer = unsteady

319. Gradually varied flow is____________________?. 
A. steady uniform
B. non-steady non-uniform
C. non-steady uniform
D. steady non-uniform
Answer = steady non-uniform

320. Non uniform flow occurs when ____________________?. 
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow. 
Answer = velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow

321. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy ___________________?. 
A. Pascal law
B. Newton's law of viscosity
C. boundary layer theory
D. continuity equation
Answer = continuity equation

322. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be installed in__________________?. 
A. vertical line
B. horizontal line
C. inclined line with flow downward
D. in any direction and in any location. 
Answer = in any direction and in any location

323. Uniform flow occurs when____________________?. 
A. the flow is steady
B. the flow is streamline
C. size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
D. size and cross section change uniform¬ly along length
Answer = size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant

324. Steady flow occurs when____________________?. 
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane
Answer = the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time

325. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do not cross each other is called____________________?. 
A. one dimensional flow
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. streamline flow. 
Answer = streamline flow

326. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction at every point, for any given instant, is known as___________________?. 
A. one dimensional flow
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
Answer = uniform flow

327. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is ______________________?. 
A. steady
B. unsteady
C. laminar
D. vortex
Answer = unsteady

328. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known as _____________________?. 
A. one dimensional flow
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
Answer = steady flow

329. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as ____________________?. 
A. one dimensional flow
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
Answer = one dimensional flow

330. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from point to point in magnitude and direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as_________________?. 
A. one dimensional flow
B. uniform flow
C. steady flow
D. turbulent flow
Answer = turbulent flow

331. General energy equation holds for_________________?. 
A. steady flow
B. turbulent flow
C. laminar flow
D. non-uniform flow
Answer = non-uniform flow

332. A streamline is defined as the line ________________?. 
A. parallel to central axis flow
B. parallel to outer surface of pipe
C. of equal yelocity in a flow
D. along which the pressure drop is uniform
Answer = of equal yelocity in a flow

333. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6. What fraction of its volume is under mercury ?. 
A. 0.5
B. 0.4
C. 0.515
D. 0.5
Answer = 0.515

334. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water is proportional to___________________?. 
A. head of water (h)
B. h2
C. V/T
D. h2
Answer = V/T

335. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is ________________?. 
A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. non-zero and finite
Answer = zero

336. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume under the liquid. The specific gravity of wood is__________________?. 
A. 0.83
B. 0.6
C. 0.4
D. 0.3
Answer = 0.6

337. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of the solid body is known as_________________?. 
A. wake
B. drag
C. lift
D. boundary layer
Answer = wake

338. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is________________?. 
A. crest
B. nappe
C. sill
D. weir top
Answer = sill

339. Uniform flow occurs when___________________?. 
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid pai-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc¬cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plsr.e
Answer = the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid

340. Hydrometer is used to determine________________?. 
A. specific gravity of liquids
B. specific gravity of solids
C. specific gravity of gases
D. relative humidity
Answer = specific gravity of liquids

341. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype, the following in both cases should also be equal__________________?. 
A. ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
B. ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
C. ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
D. all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, surface tension, and elasticity. 
Answer = all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, surface tension, and elasticity

342. Cavitation will begin when______________________?. 
A. the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of the liquid
B. pressure becomes more than critical pressure
C. flow is increased
D. pressure is increased
Answer = the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the saturated vapour pressure of the liquid

343. Principle of similitude forms the basis of__________________?. 
A. comparing two identical equipments
B. designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
C. comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
D. hydraulic designs
Answer = designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes

344. Cavitation is caused by___________________?. 
A. high velocity
B. high pressure
C. weak material
D. low pressure
Answer = low pressure

345. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of____________________?. 
A. mass
B. momentum
C. energy
D. work
Answer = energy

346. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal tc__________________?. 
A. 10 kg
B. 100 kg
C. 1000 kg
D. 1 kg
Answer = 10 kg

347. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is_________________?. 
A. less than 2000
B. between 2000 and 4000
C. more than 4000
D. less than 4000
Answer = more than 4000

348. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body of water will be equal to________________?. 
A. 1 Pa
B. 91Pa
C. 981 Pa
D. 9810 Pa
Answer = 9810 Pa

349. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the differential pressure between thes^ points must be more than_________________?. 
A. frictional force
B. viscosity
C. surface friction
D. all of the above
Answer = all of the above

350. A large Roynold number is indication of_________________?. 
A. smooth and streamline flow
B. laminar flow
C. steady flow
D. highly turbulent flow. 
Answer = highly turbulent flow

351. Reynolds number is significant in____________________?. 
A. supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
B. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc
C. simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
D. all of the above
Answer = full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc

352. Froude number is significant in____________________?. 
A. supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
B. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
C. simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
D. all of the above
Answer = simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls

353. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow __________________?. 
A. is steady
B. is one dimensional
C. velocity is uniform at all the cross sec-tions
D. all of the above. 
Answer = all of the above

354. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow_______________?. 
A. principle of conservation of mass holds
B. velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
C. total energy is constant throughout
D. the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
Answer = the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines

355. Mach number is significant in___________________?. 
A. supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
B. full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles etc.
C. simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-continuity, gravity force, and wave making effects, as with ship's hulls
D. all of fhe above
Answer = supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion

356. The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect incompres sible fluid flowing in continuous sream________________?. 
A. keeps on increasing
B. keeps on decreasing
C. remains constant
D. may increase/decrease
Answer = remains constant

357. Pitot tube is used for measurement of__________________?. 
A. pressure
B. flow
C. velocity
D. dsscharge
Answer = velocity

358. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to_______________?. 
A. steady flow
B. unsteady flow
C. laminar flow
D. uniform flow
Answer = uniform flow

359. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is___________________?. 
A. unity
B. greater than unity
C. greater than 2
D. greater than 4
Answer = greater than 4

360. Two dimensional flow occurs when___________________?. 
A. the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-cessive periods of time
C. the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in the fluid
D. the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane
Answer = the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-terns are identical in each plane

361. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation have dimension of_______________?. 
A. energy
B. work
C. mass
D. length
Answer = length

362. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are__________________?. 
A. gravity, pressure and viscous
B. gravity, pressure and turbulent
C. pressure, viscous and turbulent
D. gravity, viscous and turbulent
Answer = gravity, pressure and viscous

363. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is__________________?. 
A. less than 2000
B. between 2000 and 4000
C. more than 4000
D. less than 4000
Answer = less than 2000

364. At the centre line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity gradient is zero, the shear stress will be_______________?. 
A. minimum
B. maximum
C. zero
D. could be any value. 
Answer = could be any value

365. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following quantites are same______________?. 
A. friction loss and flow
B. length and diameter
C. flow and length
D. friction factor and diameter
Answer = friction loss and flow
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