1. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers, is_________________?.
A. Carbondioxide
B. Methane
C. Ammonia
D. Carbon monoxide.
Answer = Methane
2. The layers of vegetable wastes and night soil alternatively piled above the ground to form a mound, is called_______________?.
A. A heap
B. Plateau
C. Windrow
D. None of these.
Answer = None of these
3. Pick up the correct statement from the following ?.
A. Turbidity is more in strong sewage
B. The black colour indicates septic sewage
C. The sewage omits offensive odours after four hours
D. All the above.
Answer = All the above
4. Pick up the correct statement from the following?.
A. The boning rod is used for checking the levels of the sewer inverts
B. Manhole covers are made circular for the convenience of the cleaning staff
C. A manhole is classified as shallow manhole if its depth is less than 0.9 m
D. All the above.
Answer = All the above
5. Pick up the correct statement from the following?.
A. pH value indicates acidity and alkalinity of sewage
B. In acidic sewage, the pH value is less than 7
C. In alkaline sewage, the pH value is more than 7
D. All the above.
Answer = All the above
6. Pick up the correct statement from the following?.
A. Indore method of composting involves decomposition under aerobic conditions
B. Bangalore method of composting involves decomposing under anaerobic conditions
C. Fully stabilised refuse by the Bangalore method of compositing is a powdery mass called humus
D. all of these.
Answer = all of these
7. Pick up the correct statement from the following?.
A. Inlets are provided on the road surface at the lowest point for draining rain water
B. Inlets are generally provided at an interval of 30 m to 60 m along straight roads
C. Inlets having horizontal openings, are called horizontal inlets
D. All the above.
Answer = All the above
8. Pick up the correct statement from the following?.
A. The circular section of sewers provides maximum hydraulic mean depth
B. The circular sewers are provided for separate sewerage system
C. The circular sewers work efficiently if the sections run at least half full
D. All the above.
Answer = All the above
9. Pick up the correct statement from the following?.
A. Anaerobic bacteria flourish in the absence of oxygen
B. Aerobic bacteria flourish in the presence of oxygen
C. Facultative bacteria flourish with or without oxygen
D. All the above.
Answer = All the above
10. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following?.
A. The mixture of water and waste products, is called sewage
B. The treated sewage effluents, are generally used for irrigating the crops
C. The process of collecting, treating and disposing off the sewage, is called sewerage
D. The old convergence system was definitely better than water carried sewerage system
Answer = The old convergence system was definitely better than water carried sewerage system
11. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following?.
A. The process of decomposing the organic matter under controlled anaerobic conditions, is called sludge digestion
B. Sludge digestion is carried out in sludge tank
C. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% carbon dioxide
D. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% methane.
Answer = The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% carbon dioxide
12. The fire demand of a city may be worked out by _________________?.
A. Kuichling's formula
B. Freeman formula
C. Under Writers formula
D. All the above..
Answer = All the above.
13. The yield of a rapid gravity filter as compared to that of slow sand filter, is__________________?.
A. 10 times
B. 15 times
C. 20 times
D. 30 times
Answer = 30 times
14. Sunlight_________________ ?.
A. helps growth of bacterias
B. impedes growth of algae
C. increases dissolved oxygen content
D. reduces turbidity.
Answer = impedes growth of algae
15. Average annual rainfall at any station is the average of annual rainfall over a period of________________?.
A. 7 years
B. 14 years
C. 21 years
D. 35 years.
Answer = 5 years
16. Surge tanks are used_______________?.
A. for storage water
B. to increase the velocity in a pipeline
C. as overflow valves
D. to guard against water hammer.
Answer = to guard against water hammer
17. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be________________?.
A. nil
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
Answer = nil
18. In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at_______________?.
A. lower point
B. higher point
C. junction points
D. any where.
Answer = lower point
19. Asbestos pipes are ______________?.
A. light in weight and easy to transport
B. highly resistant to corrosion
C. high flexible to accommodate deflection upto 12°
D. all the above.
Answer = all the above
20. By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to_________________?.
A. calcium sulphate
B. magnesium sulphate
C. calcium nitrate
D. calcium bicarbonate
Answer = calcium bicarbonate
21. The least thickness of class B cast iron (spun) pipe, is_________________?.
A. 7.2 mm
B. 7.9 mm
C. 8.6 mm
D. 10 mm.
Answer = 8.6 mm
22. Time of concentration________________?.
A. is the time taken, for precipitation
B. duration of rainfall.
C. time taken for all the ran off to reach the drain
D. time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain.
Answer = time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain
23. The expected discharge to be obtained from an open well sunk in coarse sand is 0.0059 cumec. If the working depression head of the well is 3 m, the minimum diameter of the well, is________________?.
A. 2 m
B. 2.25 m
C. 2.50 m
D. 3.00 m.
Answer = 3.00 m
24. Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove_________________?.
A. odour
B. bacterias
C. turbidity
D. colour.
Answer = bacterias
25. Aeration of water is done to remove______________?.
A. odour
B. colour
C. bacterias
D. hardness.
Answer = odour
26. If four fires break out in a city of population 40 lakhs and if each hydrant has three streams and duration of each fire is four hours, the total quantity of water required, is______________________?.
A. 1880 kilo litres
B. 2880 kilo litres
C. 3880 kilo litres
D. 4880 kilo litres.
Answer = 2880 kilo litres
27. As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic purposes, is_______________?.
A. 50 litres
B. 65 litres
C. 85 litres
D. 135 litres.
Answer = 135 litres
28. The value of Sodium Absorption Ratio for high sodium water lies between________________?.
A. 0 to 10
B. 10 to 18
C. 18 to 26
D. 26 to 34.
Answer = 18 to 26
29. Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 Milli equivalent per litre respectively will be classified as__________________?.
A. low sodium water
B. medium sodium water
C. high sodium water
D. very high sodium water.
Answer = medium sodium water
30. The “outlet discharge factor” is the duty at the head of_________________?.
A. main canal
B. branch canal
C. watercourse
D. distributory.
Answer = watercourse
31. For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of_______________?.
A. rabi or kharif
B. rabi and kharif or sugarcane
C. rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
D. rabi or kharif or sugarcane.
Answer = rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
32. The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of________________?.
A. gravity water
B. capillary water
C. hydroscopic water
D. chemical water.
Answer = capillary water
33. With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops_________________?.
A. increases continuously
B. decreases continuously
C. increases upto a certain limit and then becomes constant
D. increases upto a certain limit and then decreases.
Answer = increases upto a certain limit and then decreases
34. Infiltration rate is always________________?.
A. more than the infiltration capacity
B. less than the infiltration capacity
C. equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
D. equal to or more than the infiltration capacity.
Answer = equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
35. Infiltration capacity_________________?.
A. is a constant factor
B. changes with time
C. changes with location
D. changes with both time and location.
Answer = changes with both time and location
36. If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will be______________?.
A. equal to rate of rainfall
B. equal to infiltration capacity
C. more than rate of rainfall
D. more than infiltration capacity.
Answer = equal to infiltration capacity
37. Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge ?.
A. tipping bucket type raingauge
B. Simon's raingauge
C. Steven's weighing type raingauge
D. floating type raingauge.
Answer = Simon's raingauge
38. Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible areas ?.
A. tipping bucket type
B. weighing type
C. floating type
D. Simon's raingauge.
Answer = tipping bucket type
39. A 70% index of wetness means_______________?.
A. rain excess of 30%
B. rain deficiency of 30%
C. rain deficiency of 70%
D. none of the above.
Answer = rain deficiency of 30%
40. Assertion A : To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of raingauges required per unit area is large for hilly areas. Reason R : Rainfall gradient is steep. Select your correct answer according to the coding system given below ?.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer = Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
41. Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is________________?.
A. cubic metre/sec
B. metre/sec
C. cubic metre
D. square metre.
Answer = cubic metre/sec
42. The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above basin of 250 square km will be__________________?.
A. 50 cm
B. 55 cm
C. 56 cm
D. 60 cm.
Answer = 56 cm
43. If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be_____________________?.
A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes.
Answer = 60 minutes
44. The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will be___________________?.
A. 70mm
B. 80mm
C. 90 mm
D. 105 mm.
Answer = 70mm
45. The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct runoff hydrograph by_______________?.
A. direct runoff volume
B. period of storm
C. total rainfall
D. none of the above.
Answer = direct runoff volume
46. S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of________________?.
A. shorter duration from longer duration
B. longer duration from shorter duration
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of the above.
Answer = both (A) and (B)
47. Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility are______________?.
A. M°L°T°
B. rvfL'T”1
C. M° L2 T1
D. M'LV.
Answer = M° L2 T1
48. An artesian aquifer is the one where______________?.
A. water surface under the ground is at atmospheric pressure
B. water is under pressure between two impervious strata
C. water table serves as upper surface of zone of saturation
D. none of the above.
Answer = water is under pressure between two impervious strata
49. The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called_______________?.
A. useful storage
B. dead storage
C. valley storage
D. surcharge storage.
Answer = dead storage
50. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of_______________?.
A. capacity/inflow ratio
B. capacity/outflow ratio
C. outflow/inflow ratio
D. none of the above.
Answer = capacity/inflow ratio
51. When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water surface and at the base respectively will be_______________?.
A. 0 and wH212
B. wH2/2and wH2/3
C. wH and 0
D. OandwII.
Answer = OandwII
52. The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as_________________?.
A. hydrostatic pressure at toe
B. average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
C. two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
D. none of the above.
Answer = two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
53. Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of_________________?.
A. 3H/47I above the base
B. 3H747t below the water surface
C. 4H/371 above the base
D. 4H737t below the water surface where H is the depth of water.
Answer = 4H/371 above the base
54. When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced______________?.
A. at the toe
B. at the heel
C. within the middle third of base
D. at centre of base.
Answer = at the toe
55. For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to_______________?.
A. 0.5 hw
B. 0.75 hw
C. 1.25 hw
D. 1.50 hw.
Answer = 1.50 hw
56. The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is_______________?.
A. clay
B. coarse sand
C. silty clay
D. clay mixed with fine sand.
Answer = clay mixed with fine sand
57. Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing___________________?.
A. rock toe
B. horizontal blanket
C. impervious cut off
D. chimney drain.
Answer = impervious cut off
58. Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?.
A. ogee spillway
B. chute spillway
C. side channel spillway
D. shaft spillway.
Answer = ogee spillway
59. In a chute spillway, the flow is usually____________________?.
A. uniform
B. subcritical
C. critical
D. super critical.
Answer = super critical
60. If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be____________________?.
A. one divide wall and one undersluice
B. one divide wall and two undersluices
C. two divide walls and one undersluice
D. two divide walls and two undersluices.
Answer = two divide walls and two undersluices
61. The main function of a divide wall is to_______________?.
A. control the silt entry in the canal
B. prevent river floods from entering the canal
C. separate the undersluices from weir proper
D. provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity.
Answer = separate the undersluices from weir proper
62. As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of weir is kept at_____________?.
A. lower level
B. higher level
C. same level
D. any of the above depending on the design.
Answer = lower level
63. According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is_____________?.
A. 0
B. unity
C. infinity
D. very large.
Answer = infinity
64. The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to flowing water is________________?.
A. less than 1
B. equal to 1
C. greater than 1
D. equal to zero.
Answer = greater than 1
65. As per Lacey's theory, the silt factor is_________________?.
A. directly proportional to average par¬ticle size
B. inversely proportional to average par¬ticle size
C. directly proportional to square root of average particle size
D. not related to average particle size.
Answer = directly proportional to square root of average particle size
66. Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel into a natural drain ?.
A. canal fall
B. canal outlet
C. canal escape
D. canal regulator.
Answer = canal escape
67. The sensitivity of a rigid module is_______________?.
A. zero
B. between zero and one
C. 1
D. infinity.
Answer = zero
68. In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto______________?.
A. 6 cumecs
B. 10 cumecs
C. 14 cumecs
D. 20 cumecs.
Answer = 14 cumecs
69. A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called_____________?.
A. vertical dropfall
B. glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. inglis fall.
Answer = inglis fall
70. Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto ___________?.
A. 0.5 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 3.5 m
D. 5.0 m.
Answer = 1.5 m
71. The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of distributing channel is called________________?.
A. proportionality
B. flexibility
C. setting
D. sensitivity.
Answer = flexibility
72. If the R.L's of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be________________?.
A. aqueduct
B. superpassage
C. syphon
D. syphon aqueduct.
Answer = syphon
73. The meander pattern of a river is developed by_________________?.
A. average discharge
B. dominant discharge
C. maximum discharge
D. critical discharge.
Answer = dominant discharge
74. An aggrading river is a_________________?.
A. silting river
B. scouring river
C. both silting and scouring river
D. neither silting nor scouring river.
Answer = silting river
75. River training for depth is achieved by_______________?.
A. groynes
B. construction of dykes or leavees
C. both (A) and (B)
D. groynes and bandalling.
Answer = groynes and bandalling
76. If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then the width of launching apron is generally taken as________________?.
A. 1.2 D
B. 1.5 D
C. 2.0 D
D. 2.5 D.
Answer = 1.5 D
77. The stage of river carrying a discharge of Q m7sec at a point is 10 m and slope of water surface is (1/4000). The discharge of a flood at the same point and same stage of 10 m with a water surface slope of(l/1000) will be________________?.
A. V2 Q m3/sec
B. 0.5 Q mVsec
C. 2 Q m3/sec
D. 4 Q m3/sec.
Answer = 2 Q m3/sec
78. The flow-mass curve is graphical representation of__________________?.
A. cumulative discharge and time
B. discharge and percentage probability of flow being equaled or exceeded
C. cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological order
D. discharge and time in chronological order.
Answer = cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological order
79. The shape of recession limb of a hydrograph depends upon________________?.
A. basin characteristics only
B. storm characteristics only
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of the above.
Answer = basin characteristics only
80. For a catchment area of 120 km2, the equilibrium discharge in m3/hour of an S-curve obtained by the summation of 6 hour unit hydro graph is_______________?.
A. 0.2 x 106
B. 0.6 x 106
C. 2.4 xlO6
D. 7.2 xlO6.
Answer = 0.2 x 106
81. The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is 240 m3/secIf the rainfall excess is 80 mm and base flow which is constant is 40 m3/sec, then the peak of 4-hours unit hydrograph will be__________________?.
A. 20 3/sec
B. 25 m3/sec
C. 30 m3/sec
D. 35 m3/sec.
Answer = 25 m3/sec
82. For an annual flood series arranged in descending order of magnitude, the return for a magnitude listed at position period m in a total data N is________________?.
A. N/(m+l)
B. m/(N+l)
C. m/N
D. (N+l)/m.
Answer = (N+l)/m
83. A unit hydro graph has one unit of_______________?.
A. rainfall duration
B. rainfall excess
C. time base of direct runoff
D. discharge.
Answer = rainfall excess
84. If the risk of a flood occurring in the next 10 years is accepted to 10%, then the return period for design should be__________________?.
A. 1 + (0.9)010
B. 1 – (0.9)°l0
C. 1/(1-0.9°10)
D. 1/(1+ 0.9010).
Answer = 1/(1-0.9°10)
85. If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow mass curve does not intersect the curve again, it indicates that______________?.
A. demand cannot be met by inflow
B. reservoir was not full at the beginning
C. both (A) and (B)
D. none of the above.
Answer = demand cannot be met by inflow
86. The stream which does not have any base flow contribution is called________________?.
A. perennial stream
B. intermittent stream
C. ephemeral stream
D. none of the above.
Answer = ephemeral stream
87. Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on high water marks left over in the past ?.
A. slope-area method
B. area-velocity method
C. moving boat method
D. ultra-sonic method.
Answer = slope-area method
88. The maximum rainfall depth of 300 mm in 24 hours has a return period of 100 years. The probability of 24 hours rainfall equal to or greater than 300 mm occurring at least once in 10 years is given by_____________?.
A. (0.99)10
B. 1 – (0.99)10
C. (0.9)'00
D. l-(0.9)100.
Answer = 1 – (0.99)10
89. A hydroelectric scheme operating under a head of 80 m will be classified as_____________?.
A. low head scheme
B. medium head scheme
C. high head scheme
D. none of the above.
Answer = high head scheme
90. The net head under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency at synchronous speed is called________________?.
A. design head
B. rated head
C. gross head
D. operating head.
Answer = design head
91. The net speed under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency is called_________________?.
A. design speed
B. rated speed
C. gross speed
D. operating speed.
Answer = design speed
92. Lining of irrigation channels________________?.
A. increases the waterlogging area
B. decreases the waterlogging area
C. does not change the water logging area
D. none of the above.
Answer = decreases the waterlogging area
93. A river training work is generally required when the river is_______________?.
A. aggrading type
B. degrading type
C. meandering type
D. both (A) and (B).
Answer = meandering type
94. The main cause of meandering is________________?.
A. presence of an excessive bed slope in the river
B. degradation
C. the extra turbulence generated by the excess of river sediment during floods
D. none of the above.
Answer = the extra turbulence generated by the excess of river sediment during floods
95. Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of__________________?.
A. meander belt to meander length
B. meander length to meander belt
C. curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach
D. direct axial length of the river reach to curved length along the channel.
Answer = curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach
96. The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are generally used when_______________?.
A. high flood drainage discharge is small
B. high flood drainage discharge is large and short lived
C. high flood drainage discharge is large and continues for a long time
D. none of the above.
Answer = high flood drainage discharge is small
97. The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage in___________________?.
A. aqueduct and syphon aqueduct
B. aqueduct and super passage
C. super passage and canal syphon
D. level crossing.
Answer = super passage and canal syphon
98. Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge ?.
A. non-modular outlet
B. flexible outlet
C. rigid module
D. none of the above.
Answer = rigid module
99. Which of the following can be used as a meter fall ?.
A. vertical drop fall
B. flumed glacis fall
C. unflumed glacis fall
D. all of the above.
Answer = vertical drop fall
100. Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?.
A. vertical drop fall
B. glacis fall
C. Montague type fall
D. inglis fall.
Answer = Montague type fall
101. Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?.
A. submerged pipe outlet
B. Kennedy's gauge outlet
C. Gibb's outlet
D. none of the above.
Answer = Kennedy's gauge outlet
102. If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move the grain on the bank is___________________?.
A. 0.5 xc
B. 0.75 TC
C. xc
D. 1.33 TC.
Answer = 0.75 TC
103. For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is______________?.
A. zero
B. between zero and 1
C. 1
D. greater than 1.
Answer = 1
104. Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey's theory will be_________?.
A. 19 m
B. 38m
C. 57m
D. 76m.
Answer = 38m
105. The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic mean depth R is given by______________?.
A. 4RS
B. 11 RS
C. 7RS
D. 15 RS.
Answer = 11 RS
106. Silt excluders are constructed on the________________?.
A. river bed upstream of head regulator
B. river bed downstream of head regulator
C. canal bed upstream of head regulator
D. canal bed downstream of head regulator.
Answer = river bed upstream of head regulator
107. A divide wall is provided_______________?.
A. at right angle to the axis of weir
B. parallel to the axis of weir and up-stream of it
C. parallel to the axis of weir and down-stream of it
D. at an inclination to the axis of weir.
Answer = at right angle to the axis of weir
108. Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because______________?.
A. it ensures less length of the weir
B. it gives better discharging capacity
C. it is economical
D. all of the above.
Answer = all of the above
109. For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is_______________?.
A. sudden drawdown
B. steady seepage
C. during construction
D. sloughing of slope.
Answer = sudden drawdown
110. In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is________________?.
A. straight drop spillway
B. shaft spillway
C. chute spillway
D. ogee spillway.
Answer = shaft spillway
111. Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway________________?.
A. depends on depth of approach and upstream slope
B. depends on downstream apron interference and downstream submergence
C. remains constant
D. both (A) and (B).
Answer = both (A) and (B)
112. The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway respectively are_________________?.
A. at right angle and parallel to weir crest
B. parallel and at right angle to weir crest
C. parallel to weir crest in both
D. at right angle to weir crest in both.
Answer = at right angle and parallel to weir crest
113. Main purpose of mean water training for rivers is________________?.
A. flood control
B. to provide sufficient depth of water in navigable channels, during low water periods
C. to preserve the channel in good shape by efficient disposal of suspended and bed load
D. all of the above.
Answer = to preserve the channel in good shape by efficient disposal of suspended and bed load
114. Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by_______________?.
A. drainage filters
B. relief wells
C. drain trenches
D. provision of downstream berms.
Answer = drain trenches