540+ Concrete Technology MCQs

 1. Select the correct statement?. 

A. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel

B. Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel

C. Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel

D. High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel. 

Answer = Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild steel

2.  ________ is not use to make Portland Cement (PC)?. 

A.  Calcareous Rocks. 

B.  Argillocalcareous Rocks. 

C.  Argillaceous Rocks. 

D.  Sand. 

Answer =  Sand

3.  Which one doesn’t comes under Calcareous Rocks?. 

A.  Limestone. 

B.  Cement rock. 

C.  Chalk. 

D.  Marine shell deposits. 

Answer =  Cement rock

4.  What is the percentage of CLINKER in PC?. 

A.  2-3%. 

B.  4-6%. 

C.  2-6%. 

D.  3-5%. 

Answer =  2-6%

5.  As the materials pass through the kiln their temperature is rised upto ____. 

A.  1300-1600 °C. 

B.  1100-1500 °C. 

C.  1300-1500 °C. 

D.  1100-1600 °C. 

Answer =  1300-1600 °C

6.  What is the diameter and length of the kiln respectively?. 

A.  6m and 200m. 

B.  200m and 6m. 

C.  6m and 6m. 

D.  200m and 200m. 

Answer =  6m and 200m

7.  What is the range of CaCO3 in Argillocalcareous Rocks?. 

A.  >75%. 

B.  40-75%. 

C.  <45%. 

D. 0.75. 

Answer =  40-75%

8.  ”Prepared raw mix is fed into the rotary kiln”. Is the statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

9.  What is the diameter of Clinker for making of Portland Cement?. 

A.  .15-5 cm. 

B.  .15-5 m. 

C.  .3-4 cm. 

D.  .3-4 m. 

Answer =  .15-5 cm

10.  What is the composition of making the Mortar?. 

A.  P.C. + Water. 

B.  P.C. + Water + Sand. 

C.  P.C. + Water + Sand + Gravel. 

D.  Water + Sand + Gravel. 

Answer =  P.C. + Water + Sand

11.  What is wet process?. 

A.  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their dry state. 

B.  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their medium state. 

C.  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their wet state. 

D.  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their overheated state. 

Answer =  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their wet state

12.  What is the moisture content in slurry for wet process?. 

A.  35-50%. 

B. 0.12. 

C.  40-45%. 

D. 1.0. 

Answer =  35-50%

13.  “Size of the kiln needed to manufacture the cement is bigger for wet process”. Is the statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

14.  Among the below statement, which one is correct for wet process?. 

A.  The amount of heat required is high, so the required fuel amount is high. 

B.  The amount of heat required is lesser, so the required fuel amount is less. 

C.  The amount of heat required is high, so the required fuel amount is less. 

D.  The amount of heat required is less, so the required fuel amount is high. 

Answer =  The amount of heat required is high, so the required fuel amount is high

15.  The slurry with the desired lime content passes into the _____. 

A.  Clinker. 

B.  Rotary kiln. 

C.  Slurry tank. 

D.  Cement silo. 

Answer =  Rotary kiln

16.  The slurry, in its movement down the kiln, encounters a progressively higher temperature. At first, the water is driven off and ___ is liberated.. 

A.  SiO2. 

B.  CO2. 

C.  Gypsum. 

D.  CaO. 

Answer =  CO2

17.  “The machinery and equipments do not need much maintenance”. Is the statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

18.  “When chalk is used, _______” Choose the most suitable option.. 

A.  It is finely broken up and dispersed in water in a wash mill. 

B.  It has to be blasted, then crushed, usually in two progressively smaller crushers. 

C.  It is sieved and fed into a rotating dish called a granulator. 

D.  The raw materials are crushed and fed into a grinding mill, where they are dried and reduced into fine powder. 

Answer =  It is finely broken up and dispersed in water in a wash mill

19.  In the wet process, the kiln is ___________. 

A.  Horizontal. 

B.  Vertical. 

C.  Slightly inclined with vertical. 

D.  Slightly inclined with horizontal. 

Answer =  Slightly inclined with vertical

20.  In the wet process of cement manufacturing raw material is heated to about _____________. 

A.  650-900 °C. 

B.  900-1300 °C. 

C.  1300-1450 °C. 

D.  900-1050 °C. 

Answer =  1300-1450 °C

21.  What is dry process?. 

A.  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their dry state. 

B.  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their wet state. 

C.  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their medium state. 

D.  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their super dry state. 

Answer =  Grinding and mixing of the raw materials in their dry state

22.  The raw materials is so hard (solid) that they ___ disintegrate by water.. 

A.  do. 

B.  may be. 

C.  do not. 

D.  may or may not. 

Answer =  do not

23.  To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a temperature between ___. 

A.  1100° and 1200°C. 

B.  1200° and 1300°C. 

C.  1300° and 1400°C. 

D.  1400° and 1500°C. 

Answer =  1400° and 1500°C

24.  The blended meal is sieved and fed into a rotating dish called a ___. 

A.  Clinker. 

B.  Kiln. 

C.  Granulator. 

D.  Raw meal. 

Answer =  Granulator

25.  What is the moisture content in slurry for dry process?. 

A.  35-50%. 

B. 0.12. 

C.  40-45%. 

D. 1.0. 

Answer = 0.12

26.  Among the below statement, which one is correct for dry process?. 

A.  The amount of heat required is high, so the required fuel amount is high. 

B.  The amount of heat required is less, so the required fuel amount is less. 

C.  The amount of heat required is high, so the required fuel amount is less. 

D.  The amount of heat required is less, so the required fuel amount is high. 

Answer =  The amount of heat required is less, so the required fuel amount is less

27.  “The machinery and equipments do not need much maintenance”. Is the statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

28.  What is the diameter of hard pellets?. 

A.  10mm. 

B.  12mm. 

C.  15mm. 

D.  18mm. 

Answer =  15mm

29.  Pick up the correct statement from the following:. 

A.  Gypsum in cement decreases the setting time. 

B.  The first compound of cement which reacts with water, is C2S. 

C.  Bulking of sand is less when its particles are fine. 

D.  Dry process is less economically. 

Answer =  Gypsum in cement decreases the setting time

30.  What is the percentage of cement produced in dry process?. 

A. 0.85. 

B. 0.7. 

C. 0.75. 

D. 0.8. 

Answer = 0.75

31.  What is hydration of cement?. 

A.  Chemical reaction of cement with acid. 

B.  Chemical reaction of cement with water. 

C.  Chemical reaction of cement with base. 

D.  Chemical reaction of cement with salt, and acid. 

Answer =  Chemical reaction of cement with water

32.  As the hydration proceeds the deposits of hydrated products on the original cement grains makes the diffusion of water to unhydrated nucleus ____. 

A.  Easy. 

B.  Very difficult. 

C.  Very easy. 

D.  Average. 

Answer =  Very difficult

33.  The development of first 28 days strength is on account of the hydration of __. 

A.  C2S. 

B.  C3S. 

C.  C3A. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3S

34.  Which compound is liberates higher heat?. 

A.  C2S. 

B.  C3S. 

C.  C3A. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3S

35.  Which compound is liberates lower heat?. 

A.  C2S. 

B.  C3S. 

C.  C3A. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C2S

36.  Which compound may lead to a rapid stiffening of the paste with a large amount of the heat generation?. 

A.  C2S. 

B.  C3S. 

C.  C3A. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3A

37.  In order to prevent this rapid reaction ___ is added to the clinker.. 

A.  C4AF. 

B.  Gypsum. 

C.  Water. 

D.  Extra cement. 

Answer =  Gypsum

38.  For complete hydration of cement the w/c ratio needed is ____. 

A.  More than 0.25. 

B.  More than 0.25 but less than 0.35. 

C.  More than 0.35 but less than 0.60. 

D.  More than 0.60. 

Answer =  More than 0.35 but less than 0.60

39.  The minimum water to cement ratio for cement concrete to hydrate is ___. 

A. 0.65. 

B. 0.5. 

C. 0.38. 

D. 0.27. 

Answer = 0.38

40.  Approximate percentage range of A2O3 in OPC is ___. 

A.  17-25. 

B.  3-8. 

C.  3- 10. 

D.  4-15. 

Answer =  3- 10

41.  Which chemical compostion has highest content in OPC?. 

A.  Alumina. 

B.  Silica. 

C.  Lime. 

D.  Iron Oxide. 

Answer =  Lime

42.  Excess in lime causes ___. 

A.  The cement to shrink and integrate. 

B.  The cement to shrink and disintegrate. 

C.  The cement to expand and integrate. 

D.  The cement to expand and disintegrate. 

Answer =  The cement to expand and disintegrate

43.  Silica in excess causes ____. 

A.  The cement to set slowly. 

B.  The cement to set quickly. 

C.  The cement to expand. 

D.  The cement to disintegrate. 

Answer =  The cement to set slowly

44.  Alumina in excess causes ____. 

A.  Reduces the strength of the cement. 

B.  Inceases the strength of the cement. 

C.  No change. 

D.  Sometimes increase or decrease the strength of the cement. 

Answer =  Reduces the strength of the cement

45.  Which compound gives the colour to the cement?. 

A.  Lime. 

B.  Silica. 

C.  Iron Oxide. 

D.  Alumina. 

Answer =  Iron Oxide

46.  Which cement contains high percentage of C3S and less percentage of C2S?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Ordinary Portland Cement. 

C.  Quick Setting Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Rapid Hardening Cement

47.  When concrete is to be laid under water, ____ is to used.. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Ordinary Portland Cement. 

C.  Quick Setting Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Quick Setting Cement

48.  Which of the following is correct for Low Heat Cement?. 

A.  Suitable for use in cold weather areas. 

B.  Heat of hydration is reduced by tri calcium aluminate content. 

C.  This cement requires longer period of curing. 

D.  This cement contains high aluminate %age usually between 35-55%.. 

Answer =  Heat of hydration is reduced by tri calcium aluminate content

49.  What is the percentage of iron oxide in white cement?. 

A.  High. 

B.  Very high. 

C.  Medium. 

D.  Very low. 

Answer =  Very low

50.  What is the percentage of air by volume in Air Entraining Cement?. 

A.  3-4. 

B.  10-11. 

C.  7-8. 

D. 9.0. 

Answer =  3-4

51.  Which cement is used in sewage and water treatment plants?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Low Heat Cement. 

C.  Sulphate Resisting Cement. 

D.  Quick Setting Cement. 

Answer =  Sulphate Resisting Cement

52.  Which cement is used for mainly building construction where strength required with age?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Low Heat Cement. 

C.  Portland Pozzolana Cement. 

D.  Quick Setting Cement. 

Answer =  Portland Pozzolana Cement

53.  Which cement is used for artificial marble?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Sulphate Resisting Cement. 

C.  Coloured Cement. 

D.  Quick Setting Cement. 

Answer =  Coloured Cement

54.  Which cement is used to create bond with old concrete surface?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Expansive Cement. 

C.  Sulphate Resisting Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Expansive Cement

55.  Which cement is used to stored for longer duration in wet climatic conditions?. 

A.  Expansive Cement. 

B.  Ordinary Portland Cement. 

C.  Hydrophobic Cement. 

D.  Quick Setting Cement. 

Answer =  Hydrophobic Cement

56.  Which cement used in frost resistance concrete?. 

A.  OPC. 

B.  PPC. 

C.  AEC. 

D.  QSC. 

Answer =  AEC

57.  Which cement is used for the construction of water-retaining structure like tanks, reservoirs, retaining walls, swimming pools, dams, bridges, piers etc?. 

A.  Waterproof Portland Cement. 

B.  Colored Cement. 

C.  High Alumina Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Waterproof Portland Cement

58.  ____ cement is used for formwork that can be removed earlier and reused in other areas which save the cost of formwork.. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Colored Cement. 

C.  High Alumina Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Rapid Hardening Cement

59.  Which cement is mainly used for interior and exterior decorative works?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Colored Cement. 

C.  High Alumina Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Colored Cement

60.  Which cement is used for works economic where considerations is predominant?Reservoirs, retaining walls, swimming pools, dams, bridges, piers etc.?. 

A.  Waterproof Portland Cement. 

B.  Colored Cement. 

C.  High Alumina Cement. 

D.  Blast Furnace Slag Cement. 

Answer =  Blast Furnace Slag Cement

61.  How many times in each layer of concrete rodded in a slump cone?. 

A. 75.0. 

B. 25.0. 

C.  12 to 15. 

D.  35 to 65. 

Answer = 25.0

62.  How many layers of concrete are placed to fill a slump cone?. 

A.  5 layers. 

B.  3 equal layers by volume. 

C.  3 equal layers by height. 

D.  5 layers by volume. 

Answer =  3 equal layers by volume

63.  After placing each layer in a slump cone, the concrete in the cone is tapped to remove remaining voids.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

64.  To measure the concrete temperature, the stem of the thermometer must be kept by at least ___ inches of concrete.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 3.0

65.  In the soundness test a specimen of hardened cement paste is ___ for a fixed time.. 

A.  Freeze. 

B.  Dry. 

C.  Boiled. 

D.  Dipped in water. 

Answer =  Boiled

66.  If L1=Measurement taken after 24 hours of immersion in water at a temp. of 27 ± 20oC and L2=Measurement taken after 3 hours of immersion in water at boiling temperature. Then what is soundness of cement?. 

A.  L1+L2. 

B.  L1/L2. 

C.  L1-L2. 

D.  L1*L2. 

Answer =  L1-L2

67.  To determine the fineness of cement ____. 

A.  Grain size is smaller than specified mesh size. 

B.  Grain size is larger than specified mesh size. 

C.  Grain size is equal to specified mesh size. 

D.  Grain size is 1mm. 

Answer =  Grain size is larger than specified mesh size

68.  To determine the fineness of cement by dry sieving as per IS: 4031 (Part 1) – 1996.The principle of this is that we determine the proportion of cement whose grain size is larger than specified mesh size.. 

A.  The apparatus used are ___ IS Sieve, Balance capable of weighing 10g to the nearest 10mg.. 

B.  90μm. 

C.  45μm. 

D.  22.5μm. 

Answer =  The apparatus used are ___ IS Sieve, Balance capable of weighing 10g to the nearest 10mg.

69.  What is the amount of water required to give the paste normal consistency for consistency test?. 

A.  .78 times. 

B.  .79 times. 

C.  .77 times. 

D.  .76 times. 

Answer =  .78 times

70.  Which apparatus is generally used to measure the soundness of the cement?. 

A.  Vicat Apparatus. 

B.  Le-Chatelier apparatus. 

C.  Soundness meter. 

D.  Duff Abrams apparatus. 

Answer =  Le-Chatelier apparatus

71.  Why do we need Standard Consistency Test?. 

A.  To determine the quality of cement. 

B.  To determine the quality of water. 

C.  To determine the quality of mixed concrete. 

D.  To determine the strength of concrete block. 

Answer =  To determine the quality of water

72.  What is standard consistency?. 

A.  Consistency which permits the Vicat’s plunger. 

B.  Ability of cement to maintain a constant volume. 

C.  Durability in sea water. 

D.  Free lime content. 

Answer =  Consistency which permits the Vicat’s plunger

73.  When the cement paste is tested within the gauging time. Here what is the value of gauging time?. 

A.  3 to 5 minutes. 

B.  3 to 5 hours. 

C.  24 minutes. 

D.  24 hours. 

Answer =  3 to 5 minutes

74.  How many moulds required for compression strength test of cement?. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 3.0

75.  Which of the following option is correct?. 

A.  Standard consistency (%) = (wt of water added/ wt of cement) *100. 

B.  Standard consistency (%) = (wt of water added- wt of cement) *100. 

C.  Standard consistency = (wt of water added/ wt of cement) *100. 

D.  Standard consistency (%) = (wt cement/ wt of water) *100. 

Answer =  Standard consistency (%) = (wt of water added/ wt of cement) *100

76.  Standard consistency of cement is tested by ___________. 

A.  Vicat apparatus. 

B.  Le Chatalier apparatus. 

C.  Soundness meter. 

D.  Duff Abrams apparatus. 

Answer =  Vicat apparatus

77.  Calculate standard consistency(%) when 100 ml of water is added in 1000 g of cement.. 

A. 10.0. 

B. 1000.0. 

C. 100.0. 

D. 1.0. 

Answer = 10.0

78.  For making cement paste, what is the amount of water we need?. 

A.  25% water by weight of dry cement. 

B.  30% water by weight of dry cement. 

C.  78% water by weight of dry cement. 

D.  80% water by weight of dry cement. 

Answer =  25% water by weight of dry cement

79.  What is the normal consistency for OPC?. 

A.  26 to 33%. 

B.  20 to 35%. 

C.  26 to 50%. 

D.  33 to 55%. 

Answer =  26 to 33%

80.  The relative humidity of laboratory should be ___________ for standard consistency.. 

A.  65 ± 5%. 

B.  27 ± 2%. 

C.  50 ± 5%. 

D.  45 ± 10. 

Answer =  65 ± 5%

81.  In cement hardening process, ___________ instants are very important.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 2.0

82.  What is initial setting time?. 

A.  The time at which cement paste loses its plasticity. 

B.  The time at which cement paste loses its elasticity. 

C.  The time at which cement paste gains its plasticity. 

D.  The time at which cement paste gains its elasticity. 

Answer =  The time at which cement paste loses its plasticity

83.  Initial setting time of OPC should not be less than ___________. 

A.  15 minutes. 

B.  30 minutes. 

C.  28 minutes. 

D.  1 hour. 

Answer =  30 minutes

84.  Final setting time of cement should not be more than. 

A.  1 hour. 

B.  2 hours. 

C.  5 hours. 

D.  10 hours. 

Answer =  10 hours

85.  In the soundness test, the whole assembly is immersed in water for. 

A.  30 minutes. 

B.  1 hour. 

C.  24 hours. 

D.  48 hours. 

Answer =  24 hours

86.  What is final setting time?. 

A.  The time at which cement paste loses its plasticity. 

B.  The time to reach that stage at which cement paste loses its elasticity. 

C.  The time at which cement paste gains its plasticity. 

D.  The time when cement paste becomes hardened. 

Answer =  The time at which cement paste loses its plasticity

87.  Initial setting time of Low Heat Cement should not be less than _____________. 

A. 15 minutes. 

B.  30 minutes. 

C.  60 minutes. 

D.  1 hour. 

Answer =  30 minutes

88.  If t1=Time at which water is first added to cement,t2=Time when needle fails to penetrate 5 mm to 7 mm from bottom of the mould,t3=Time when the needle makes an impression but the attachment fails to do so, then what is initial setting time?. 

A.  t2-t1. 

B.  t2+t1. 

C.  t3-t1. 

D.  2*t1. 

Answer =  t2-t1

89.  If t1=Time at which water is first added to cement,t2=Time when needle fails to penetrate 5 mm to 7 mm from bottom of the mould,t3=Time when the needle makes an impression but the attachment fails to do so,then what is final setting time?. 

A.  t2-t1. 

B.  t2+t1. 

C.  t3-t1. 

D.  2*t1. 

Answer =  t3-t1

90.  What is the capacity of measuring cylinder?. 

A.  10ml. 

B.  50ml. 

C.  100ml. 

D.  1000ml. 

Answer =  100ml

91.  Insoluble Residue mainly comes from which compound?. 

A.  Lime. 

B.  Soda. 

C.  Silica. 

D.  Alumina. 

Answer =  Silica

92.  Loss on Ignition (L.O.I.) is the loss in weight of cement after being heated to _____________. 

A.  1000°C. 

B.  100°C. 

C.  500°C. 

D.  1500°C. 

Answer =  1000°C

93.  “C4AF is not a true compound.” Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

94.  On cooling below 1250oC, C3S decomposes ____________. 

A.  Fast. 

B.  Slowly. 

C.  Never. 

D.  Depends on the conditions. 

Answer =  Slowly

95.  Gypsum reacts with ____________ to form calcium sulfo aluminates and calcium sulfo ferrite.. 

A.  C4AF. 

B.  CF4. 

C.  SO3. 

D.  CaO. 

Answer =  C4AF

96.  C3 S and C2S require approximately the _____________ amount of water for hydration.. 

A.  Same. 

B.  More. 

C.  Less. 

D.  Depends on the paste. 

Answer =  Same

97.  According to geological origin, aggregates is/are classified into __________ types.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 2.0

98.  According to size, aggregates is/are classified into __________ types.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 4.0

99.  What is the total percentage of aggregates in concrete by volume?. 

A.  50-60%. 

B.  60-75%. 

C. 0.85. 

D. 0.5. 

Answer =  60-75%

100.  What is the size of fine aggregates?. 

A.  4.75mm. 

B.  < 4.75mm. 

C.  > 4.75mm. 

D.  12mm. 

Answer =  < 4.75mm

101.  What is the size of coarse aggregates?. 

A.  4.75mm. 

B.  < 4.75mm. 

C.  > 4.75mm. 

D.  12mm. 

Answer =  > 4.75mm

102.  Crushed stone, gravel and ordinary sand are examples of ___________. 

A.  Lightweight aggregate. 

B.  Normal-weight aggregate. 

C.  Heavy-weight aggregate. 

D.  Both Normal-weight aggregate and Heavy-weight aggregate. 

Answer =  Normal-weight aggregate

103.  Aggregate crushed before the application of full load of ___________. 

A.  10ton. 

B.  20ton. 

C.  30ton. 

D.  40ton. 

Answer =  40ton

104.  Natural aggregates comes in which category?. 

A.  Based on size. 

B.  Based on origin. 

C.  Based on density. 

D.  Based on shape. 

Answer =  Based on origin

105.  Generally rounded aggregates are the example of natural aggregates. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

106.  What are artificial aggregates?. 

A.  Those who obtained from river beds. 

B.  Those who are manufactured naturally. 

C.  Those who are mechanically obtained. 

D.  Who has smooth surface. 

Answer =  Those who are mechanically obtained

107.  The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon ____________. 

A.  Size and shape of aggregates. 

B.  Specific gravity of aggregates. 

C.  Grading of aggregates. 

D.  Size and shape of the container. 

Answer =  Size and shape of the container

108.  An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than ___________. 

A.  1/5th of mean dimension. 

B.  2/5th of mean dimension. 

C.  3/5th of mean dimension. 

D.  4/5th of mean dimension. 

Answer =  3/5th of mean dimension

109.  The light weight aggregates are obtained from. 

A.  Sedimentary rocks. 

B.  Metamorphic rocks. 

C.  Igneous rocks. 

D.  Volcanic source. 

Answer =  Volcanic source

110.  The standard sand now a days used in India, is obtained from. 

A.  Ennore (Madras). 

B.  Jaipur. 

C.  Jullundur (Punjab). 

D.  Hyderabad. 

Answer =  Ennore (Madras)

111.  For the construction of cement concrete floor, the maximum permissible size of aggregate, is. 

A.  4.75mm. 

B.  8mm. 

C.  10mm. 

D.  15mm. 

Answer =  10mm

112.  Generally angular aggregates are the example of natural aggregates. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

113.  Generally heavy weight aggregate obtained from ______________. 

A.  Minerals ores. 

B.  Palm oil shell. 

C.  Sand. 

D.  Crushed stone. 

Answer =  Minerals ores

114.  Pick up the most appropriate statement from the following:. 

A.  Bulk density of normal weight aggregate is 1600 kg/m3. 

B.  Bulk density of normal weight aggregate is 2000 kg/ m3. 

C.  Bulk density of normal weight aggregate is 1000 kg/ m3. 

D.  Bulk density of normal weight aggregate is 1250 kg/ m3. 

Answer =  Bulk density of normal weight aggregate is 1600 kg/m3

115.  The 28 days cube strength of mass concrete using aggregates of maximum size 5 cm for gravity dams should be. 

A.  Between 150 to 300 kg/cm2. 

B.  Between 350 to 600 kg/cm2. 

C.  Between 150 to 400 kg/cm2. 

D.  Less than 200 kg/cm2. 

Answer =  Less than 200 kg/cm2

116.  The unit weight of heavy weight concrete varies from __________ kg/m3.. 

A. 1000.0. 

B. 2400.0. 

C. 2000.0. 

D. 1400.0. 

Answer = 2400.0

117.  The use of crushed aggregates may results in 10 to 20% higher compressive strength. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

118.  S.I. unit of bulk density. 

A.  kg/l. 

B.  g/ml. 

C.  kg/ml. 

D.  g/l. 

Answer =  kg/l

119.  What is void ratio?. 

A.  1- (bulk density/apparent sp gr). 

B.  (bulk density/apparent sp gr) -1. 

C.  1- bulk density/apparent sp gr. 

D.  bulk density/apparent sp gr -1. 

Answer =  1- (bulk density/apparent sp gr)

120.  The average specific gravity of natural aggregate is:. 

A. 2.7. 

B. 3.0. 

C. 1.5. 

D. 1.0. 

Answer = 2.7

121.  Pick up the most appropriate statement from the following:. 

A.  Sp. Gr. =c/a-b. 

B.  Sp. Gr. =c/(a-b). 

C.  Sp. Gr. =a-b/c. 

D.  Sp. Gr. =(a-b)/c. 

Answer =  Sp. Gr. =c/(a-b)

122.  The ratio of the mass of the aggregate dried in an oven at ___________ for 24 hours to the mass of the water occupying a volume equal to that of solid.. 

A.  100-110oC. 

B.  150-180oC. 

C.  100oC. 

D.  1500oC. 

Answer =  100-110oC

123.  Aggregate abrasion value is determined by__________. 

A.  Aggregates crushing strength. 

B.  Los Angeles abrasion test. 

C.  Aggregates Impact value test. 

D.  Ten percent fine test. 

Answer =  Los Angeles abrasion test

124.  What do you mean by bulking?. 

A.  The volume increase of fine aggregate due to presence of moisture content in it. 

B.  The moisture present in aggregate forms a film around each particle. 

C.  Fine aggregate shows completely realistic volume. 

D.  The state of setting someone or something apart from others. 

Answer =  The volume increase of fine aggregate due to presence of moisture content in it

125.  “Fine aggregate do not show any bulking when it is absolutely dry”. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

126.  What is the percentage of bulk if fine aggregates manufactured by extremely fine sand?. 

A. 20.0. 

B. 30.0. 

C. 40.0. 

D. 50.0. 

Answer = 40.0

127.  Bulking ___________ with increase in moisture.. 

A.  Increase. 

B.  Decrease. 

C.  First increase then decrease. 

D.  First decrease then increase. 

Answer =  First increase then decrease

128.  Fine sand bulks __________ than coarse sand.. 

A.  Less. 

B.  More. 

C.  Equal. 

D.  Depends on volume. 

Answer =  More

129.  If h= height of sand when moist and h1 is the height when saturated then what is the percentage of bulking?. 

A.  {(h-h1)/h1}*100. 

B.  {(h1-h)/h1}*100. 

C.  {(h-h1)/h}*100. 

D.  {(h1-h)/h}*100. 

Answer =  {(h-h1)/h1}*100

130.  Which apparatus we don’t need to calculate the bulking of fine aggregates?. 

A.  Measuring cylinder. 

B.  Weighing balance. 

C.  Steel rule. 

D.  Vicat’s mould. 

Answer =  Vicat’s mould

131.  What is bulking of coarse aggregates?. 

A.  More than sand. 

B.  Less than sand. 

C.  Equal than sand. 

D.  Negligible. 

Answer =  Negligible

132.  If the moisture content of 5 to 10% by weight, then the bulking of sand is increased by __________. 

A. 20.0. 

B. 30.0. 

C. 40.0. 

D. 50.0. 

Answer = 50.0

133.  When sand is fully dry then it’s volume is ____________. 

A.  Equal. 

B.  Less. 

C.  More. 

D.  Can’t say. 

Answer =  Equal

134.  What is soundness?. 

A.  Soundness of cement is the property by virtue of which the cement does not undergo any appreciable expansion. 

B.  Soundness of cement is the property by virtue of which the cement does undergo any appreciable expansion. 

C.  Soundness of cement is the property by virtue of which the cement does not undergo any appreciable contraction. 

D.  Soundness of cement is the property by virtue of which the cement does undergo any appreciable contraction. 

Answer =  Soundness of cement is the property by virtue of which the cement does not undergo any appreciable expansion

135.  Which apparatus we need to find soundness?. 

A.  Le Chatelier. 

B.  Vicat’s apparatus. 

C.  CTM. 

D.  Pat test. 

Answer =  Le Chatelier

136.  Why do we need to find soundness?. 

A.  To detect the uncombined lime in cement. 

B.  To detect the combined lime in cement. 

C.  To detect the combined alumina in cement. 

D.  To detect the uncombined alumina in cement. 

Answer =  To detect the uncombined lime in cement

137.  What is the maximum size of split?. 

A.  1mm. 

B.  .5mm. 

C.  10mm. 

D.  2mm. 

Answer =  .5mm

138.  Le Chatelier apparatus consist of ___________. 

A.  Brass mould. 

B.  Steel mould. 

C.  Aluminum mould. 

D.  Wooden mould. 

Answer =  Brass mould

139.  When the cement paste is filled in mould and kept in water. Then what should be the temperature of water?. 

A.  24-35°C. 

B.  20°C. 

C.  30-40°C. 

D.  50°C. 

Answer =  24-35°C

140.  Expansion should not be more than _____________. 

A.  5mm. 

B.  10mm. 

C.  5cm. 

D.  10cm. 

Answer =  10mm

141.  If the Y is the reading of sand surface (ml) then what is the percentage of bulking?. 

A.  % of bulking {(200/Y)-2} x100. 

B.  % of bulking {(200/Y)-1} x100. 

C.  % of bulking {(100/Y)-2} x100. 

D.  % of bulking {(100/Y)-1} x100. 

Answer =  % of bulking {(200/Y)-1} x100

142.  What is the size of caliper?. 

A.  30cm. 

B.  50cm. 

C.  30mm. 

D.  40mm. 

Answer =  30cm

143.  What is the standard value of expansion for super sulphated cement?. 

A.  10mm. 

B.  5mm. 

C.  1mm. 

D.  .5mm. 

Answer =  5mm

144.  How many principal thermal properties are there for aggregates?. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 3.0

145.  Coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete is ___ coefficient of thermal expansion in aggregates.. 

A.  Directly proportional. 

B.  Inversely proportional. 

C.  Equal. 

D.  More than. 

Answer =  Directly proportional

146.  If the coefficient of thermal expansion of coarse aggregates and cement paste differs too much, then what happen?. 

A.  A small change in temperature may introduce. 

B.  No change. 

C.  A large change in temperature may introduce. 

D.  A small change in pressure may introduce. 

Answer =  A large change in temperature may introduce

147.  If the coefficient of the two materials differ by more than 5.4 * 10-6 per oC, then. 

A.  Workability of concrete may freeze. 

B.  Durability of concrete subjected to freezing. 

C.  Durability of concrete subjected to boiling. 

D.  Workability of concrete subjected to boiling. 

Answer =  Durability of concrete subjected to freezing

148.  The specific heat of the aggregates is _____________. 

A.  The ability to conduct the heat. 

B.  The ability to insulate the heat. 

C.  Is a measure of its heat capacity. 

D.  Same as thermal conductivity. 

Answer =  Is a measure of its heat capacity

149.  The thermal conductivity of the aggregates is ______________. 

A.  The ability to conduct the heat. 

B.  The ability to insulate the heat. 

C.  Is a measure of its heat capacity. 

D.  Same as thermal conductivity. 

Answer =  The ability to conduct the heat

150.  In crushing test, dry aggregates passing through ________ mm sieve and retained ________ mm in a cylinder.. 

A.  12.5, 10. 

B.  11.5, 10. 

C.  12.5, 11.5. 

D.  10, 2.36. 

Answer =  12.5, 10

151.  According to IS: 2386 part-IV, each layer is tamped ________ times in crushing test.. 

A. 20.0. 

B. 25.0. 

C. 30.0. 

D. 10.0. 

Answer = 25.0

152.  A value less than 10 signifies an exceptionally _________ while above 35 would normally be regarded as _________. 

A.  Strong aggregates, weak aggregates. 

B.  Weak aggregates, strong aggregates. 

C.  Strong aggregates, strong aggregates. 

D.  Weak aggregates, weak aggregates. 

Answer =  Strong aggregates, weak aggregates

153.  Los Angeles machine consists of circular drum of internal diameter ________ mm and length ________ mm.. 

A.  700, 700. 

B.  520, 520. 

C.  520, 700. 

D.  700, 520. 

Answer =  700, 520

154.  Which machine is preferred for abrasion test?. 

A.  Vicat’s mould. 

B.  Los Angeles. 

C.  Flakiness Gauge. 

D.  Elongation Gauge. 

Answer =  Los Angeles

155.  A maximum value of _________ percent is allowed for WBM base course in Indian conditions.. 

A. 25.0. 

B. 35.0. 

C. 40.0. 

D. 50.0. 

Answer = 40.0

156.  The aggregate crushing value provides a relative measure of a maximum value of 40%age is allowed for WBM base course in Indian conditions.. 

A.  Aggregates to be used for wearing course, the impact value shouldn’t exceed ________ percent.. 

B. 30.0. 

C. 35.0. 

D. 40.0. 

Answer =  Aggregates to be used for wearing course, the impact value shouldn’t exceed ________ percent.

157.  What is the range of water absorption of aggregates used in road?. 

A.  2.5-2.9. 

B.  .1-2. 

C.  .1-2.5. 

D.  2-2.9. 

Answer =  .1-2

158.  The loss in weight should not exceed ______________ percent when tested with sodium sulphate and ________ percent with magnesium sulphate solution.. 

A.  12, 18. 

B.  18, 12. 

C.  10, 15. 

D.  15, 10. 

Answer =  12, 18

159.  If 60% aggregates doesn’t pass through the 2.36mm sieve, then what would be the value of Aggregate impact value?. 

A. 0.6. 

B. 0.4. 

C. 0.25. 

D. 1.0. 

Answer = 0.4

160.  Which machine is preferred for abrasion test?. 

A.  Vicat’s mould. 

B.  Los Angeles. 

C.  Flakiness Gauge. 

D.  Elongation Gauge. 

Answer =  Los Angeles

161.  A maximum value of ___ percent is allowed for WBM base course in Indian conditions.. 

A. 25.0. 

B. 35.0. 

C. 40.0. 

D. 50.0. 

Answer = 40.0

162.  A maximum value of 40%age is allowed for WBM base course in Indian conditions.. 

A.  Aggregates to be used for wearing course, the impact value shouldn’t exceed __ percent.. 

B. 30.0. 

C. 35.0. 

D. 40.0. 

Answer =  Aggregates to be used for wearing course, the impact value shouldn’t exceed __ percent.

163.  What is the range of water absorption of aggregates used in road?. 

A.  2.5-2.9. 

B.  .1-2. 

C.  .1-2.5. 

D.  2-2.9. 

Answer =  .1-2

164.  The loss in weight should not exceed __ percent when tested with sodium sulphate and __ percent with magnesium sulphate solution.. 

A.  12, 18. 

B.  18, 12. 

C.  10, 15. 

D.  15, 10. 

Answer =  12, 18

165.  If 60% aggregates doesn’t pass through the 2.36mm sieve, then what would be the value of Aggregate impact value?. 

A. 0.6. 

B. 0.4. 

C. 0.25. 

D. 1.0. 

Answer = 0.4

166.  Which of the following statement is incorrect?. 

A.  Water is the most important and least expensive ingredient of concrete. 

B.  Excess of water forms scum. 

C.  Less amount of water may cause honeycombing. 

D.  Mixing of water is used in the hydration of cement and provides lubrication between fine and coarse aggregates.. 

Answer =  Less amount of water may cause honeycombing

167.  Which of the following statement is incorrect for mixing water,. 

A.  Suspended particles of clay and slit < .02%. 

B.  The quality of CaCl2 is restricted to 1.5%. 

C.  The pH value of water should be between 6-8. 

D.  Free vegetable oil is beneficial. 

Answer =  Free vegetable oil is beneficial

168.  The vegetable oil if present in mixing for concrete. 

A.  Improves strength. 

B.  Reduces strength. 

C.  Gives more slump. 

D.  Gives a smooth surface. 

Answer =  Reduces strength

169.  The mineral oil if present in mixing for concrete. 

A.  Improves strength. 

B.  Reduces strength. 

C.  Gives more slump. 

D.  Gives a smooth surface. 

Answer =  Improves strength

170.  With regard to the curing water, identify the incorrect statement.. 

A.  Curing water shouldn’t produce objectionable stains on the surface. 

B.  The presence of tannic acid and iron compounds is objectionable. 

C.  Iron and organic matter are responsible for staining. 

D.  Water is suitable for mixing is also suitable for curing. 

Answer =  Iron and organic matter are responsible for staining

171.  To neutralize 200 ml of sample should not require more than 10 ml of __________ normal HCI using methyl orange.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 0.1. 

C. 10.0. 

D. 0.01. 

Answer = 0.1

172.  To neutralize 200 ml sample of water should not require more than _________ ml of 0.1 normal NaOH.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 2.0

173.  What is the permissible limits for construction of organic matter in water.. 

A.  200mg/l. 

B.  2000mg/l. 

C.  3000mg/l. 

D.  500mg/l. 

Answer =  200mg/l

174.  What is the permissible limits for construction of inorganic matter in water.. 

A.  200mg/l. 

B.  2000mg/l. 

C.  3000mg/l. 

D.  500mg/l. 

Answer =  3000mg/l

175.  What is the permissible limits for construction of suspended matter in water.. 

A.  200mg/l. 

B.  2000mg/l. 

C.  3000mg/l. 

D.  500mg/l. 

Answer =  2000mg/l

176.  What is the permissible limits for construction of chlorides in water for RCC work?. 

A.  200mg/l. 

B.  2000mg/l. 

C.  1000mg/l. 

D.  500mg/l. 

Answer =  1000mg/l

177.  What is the permissible limits for construction of chlorides in water for PCC work?. 

A.  200mg/l. 

B.  2000mg/l. 

C.  1000mg/l. 

D.  500mg/l. 

Answer =  2000mg/l

178.  What is the permissible limits for construction of sulphates in water?. 

A.  200mg/l. 

B.  2000mg/l. 

C.  1000mg/l. 

D.  500mg/l. 

Answer =  500mg/l

179.  “There is necessary to minimize the use of salt water in RCC”. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

180.  Presence of acid, alkali ___________. 

A.  Increases the strength. 

B.  Reduces the strength. 

C.  Do effect the concrete. 

D.  Depends upon the proportion. 

Answer =  Reduces the strength

181.  Which of the following statement is incorrect for mixing water,. 

A.  Suspended particles of clay and slit < .02%. 

B.  The quality of CaCl2 is restricted to 1.5%. 

C.  The pH value of water should be between 6-8. 

D.  Free vegetable oil is beneficial. 

Answer =  Free vegetable oil is beneficial

182.  What is the maximum limit (ppm) for chlorides in water?. 

A. 500.0. 

B. 1000.0. 

C. 2000.0. 

D. 1500.0. 

Answer = 500.0

183.  What is the maximum limit (ppm) for SO3 in water?. 

A. 500.0. 

B. 1000.0. 

C. 2000.0. 

D. 1500.0. 

Answer = 1000.0

184.  What is the maximum limit (ppm) for turbidity in water?. 

A. 500.0. 

B. 1000.0. 

C. 2000.0. 

D. 1500.0. 

Answer = 1500.0

185.  What is the maximum limit (ppm) for Alkali Carbonates and Bicarbonates in water?. 

A. 500.0. 

B. 1000.0. 

C. 2000.0. 

D. 1500.0. 

Answer = 1000.0

186.  What do you mean by admixtures?. 

A.  Ingredients which are added to in cement before or after concrete mix. 

B.  Ingredients which are added to make aggregates healthier. 

C.  Ingredients added in cement to make it shinier. 

D.  Ingredients added in concrete to make good workability. 

Answer =  Ingredients which are added to in cement before or after concrete mix

187.  Which of the following statement is incorrect about the function of admixtures.. 

A.  To accelerate the initial set of concrete, to speed up the rate of development of strength at early ages. 

B.  To enhance the workability. 

C.  To reduce the segregation in grout and concrete mixers. 

D.  To retard the initial set, to keep concrete workable for a shorter time for placement. 

Answer =  To retard the initial set, to keep concrete workable for a shorter time for placement

188.  Which of the following statement is incorrect about the function of admixtures.. 

A.  To increase the strength of concrete by reducing the water content and by densification of concrete. 

B.  To increase the durability of concrete to enhance its resistance to special conditions of exposure. 

C.  To increase the capillary flow of water through concrete and to increase its impermeability to liquids. 

D.  To control the alkali-aggregate expansion or alkali silica reaction. 

Answer =  To increase the capillary flow of water through concrete and to increase its impermeability to liquids

189.  Which of the following option doesn’t come in chemical admixtures?. 

A.  Plasticizers. 

B.  Pozzolanic. 

C.  Super plasticizer. 

D.  Accelerators. 

Answer =  Pozzolanic

190.  Classification of admixtures are classified into ________ types.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 5.0. 

Answer = 2.0

191.  Which of the following option doesn’t come in mineral admixtures?. 

A.  Set retarders. 

B.  Blast Furnace Slag. 

C.  Flyash. 

D.  Silica Fume. 

Answer =  Set retarders

192.  Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are called __________. 

A.  Plasticizers. 

B.  Retarders. 

C.  Super plasticizer. 

D.  Accelerators. 

Answer =  Accelerators

193.  Mid-range water reducers result in at least _________ %.. 

A. 2.0. 

B. 4.0. 

C. 6.0. 

D. 8.0. 

Answer = 8.0

194.  What is the main function of set retarders?. 

A.  Increase curing rate. 

B.  Slows curing rate. 

C.  Improves workability at low w/c ratio. 

D.  Speeds up start of finishing operations. 

Answer =  Slows curing rate

195.  Super plasticizers reduce water requirement by ___________ %.. 

A.  12-30. 

B.  10-15. 

C.  30-42. 

D. 48.0. 

Answer =  12-30

196.  Damp proofing is done with a __________ based mixture.. 

A.  Sand. 

B.  Tar. 

C.  Rubber. 

D.  Lead. 

Answer =  Tar

197.  Damp proofing __________ the process of water absorption.. 

A.  Increase. 

B.  Slows. 

C.  Doesn’t effect. 

D.  Depends on the mixture. 

Answer =  Slows

198.  “Damp proofing is cheaper in the beginning, but leads to more expensive problems later on”. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

199.  “Damp proofing cracks along with the foundation”. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

200.  Damp proofing __________ resist water well enough.. 

A.  Does. 

B.  Does not. 

C.  Doesn’t effect. 

D.  Depends on the temperature. 

Answer =  Does not

201.  DPC _________ effective used in concretes that are in contact with water under pressure?. 

A.  Does. 

B.  Doesn’t. 

C.  Doesn’t effect. 

D.  Depends on the temperature. 

Answer =  Doesn’t

202.  What do you mean by admixtures?. 

A.  Ingredients which are added to in cement before or after concrete mix. 

B.  Ingredients which are added to make aggregates healthier. 

C.  Ingredients added in cement to make it shinier. 

D.  Ingredients added in concrete to make good workability. 

Answer =  Ingredients which are added to in cement before or after concrete mix

203.  Nomenclature of water proofing agent.. 

A.  PC. 

B.  KIM. 

C.  PCKIM. 

D.  WP. 

Answer =  KIM

204.  The addition of the admixture to the mix __________ the surface tension.. 

A.  Lowers. 

B.  Higher. 

C.  Don’t affect. 

D.  No change. 

Answer =  Lowers

205.  Entrapped air normally exists in the form of relatively _________ air voids.. 

A.  Small. 

B.  Absent. 

C.  Large. 

D.  Medium. 

Answer =  Large

206.  What is water proofing admixtures?. 

A.  Water repellent materials. 

B.  Water fair material. 

C.  Water absorption material. 

D.  Water adsorption material. 

Answer =  Water repellent materials

207.  “Water proofing admixtures are available in powder, paste or liquid and gaesous form”. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

208.  Which one is not a chemically active pore filling material?. 

A.  Silicate of soda. 

B.  Aluminium. 

C.  Chalk. 

D.  Zinc. 

Answer =  Chalk

209.  Which one is not a chemically inactive pore filling material?. 

A.  Aluminium. 

B.  Chalk. 

C.  Talc. 

D.  Fullers earth. 

Answer =  Aluminium

210.  Chemically active pore fillers __________ the setting of concrete.. 

A.  Retards. 

B.  Decrease. 

C.  Accelerates. 

D.  No change. 

Answer =  Accelerates

211.  Chemically inactive pore fillers __________ the workability.. 

A.  Decrease. 

B.  Increase. 

C.  Don’t affect. 

D.  Improve. 

Answer =  Improve

212.  “Water repelling materials like soda, potash soaps, etc make the concrete pervious”. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

213.  Nomenclature of water proofing agent.. 

A.  PC. 

B.  KIM. 

C.  PCKIM. 

D.  WP. 

Answer =  KIM

214.  The addition of the admixture to the mix __________ the surface tension.. 

A.  Lowers. 

B.  Higher. 

C.  Don’t affect. 

D.  No change. 

Answer =  Lowers

215.  Entrapped air normally exists in the form of relatively __________ air voids.. 

A.  Small. 

B.  Absent. 

C.  Large. 

D.  Medium. 

Answer =  Large

216.  What is plasticizers?. 

A.  Which adds water for workability. 

B.  Which reduces water for workability. 

C.  Which decreases workability at the same water content. 

D.  Which oxidizes water for workability. 

Answer =  Which reduces water for workability

217.  Which one is an anionic surfactants?. 

A.  Polyglycol esters. 

B.  Hydroxylated carboxylic acids. 

C.  Lignosulphonates. 

D.  Carbohydrates. 

Answer =  Lignosulphonates

218.  What is the amount used of plasticizers in cement by weight?. 

A. 0.0. 

B.  .1-.4%. 

C. 0.01. 

D.  1-2%. 

Answer =  .1-.4%

219.  What is the limitation of plasticizers?. 

A.  A good plasticizer is one which does not cause air-entrainment in concrete > .1-.2%. 

B.  A good plasticizer is one which does not cause air-entrainment in concrete > 5%. 

C.  A good plasticizer is one which does not cause air-entrainment in concrete > 10-20%. 

D.  A good plasticizer is one which does not cause air-entrainment in concrete > 1-2%. 

Answer =  A good plasticizer is one which does not cause air-entrainment in concrete > 1-2%

220.  At constant workability, what is the reduction in mixing water?. 

A.  1-2%. 

B. 0.5. 

C.  .1-.4%. 

D.  5-15%. 

Answer =  5-15%

221.  Where do we use plasticizers?. 

A.  Where low degree of workability is required. 

B.  Where medium degree of workability is required. 

C.  Where high degree of workability is required. 

D.  Where very low degree of workability is required. 

Answer =  Where high degree of workability is required

222.  What is super plasticizers?. 

A.  Which adds water for workability. 

B.  Which reduces high range of water for workability. 

C.  Which decreases workability at the same water content. 

D.  Which oxidizes water for workability. 

Answer =  Which reduces high range of water for workability

223.  What is the allowed reduction of water with super plasticizers without reducing workability.. 

A. 0.1. 

B. 0.2. 

C. 0.3. 

D. 0.4. 

Answer = 0.3

224.  Is it possible to use w/c ratio as low as 5?. 

A.  Yes. 

B.  No. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer =  No

225.  What is the limitation of Carboxylic acids in High range water reducers?. 

A. 0.0. 

B. 0.001. 

C. 0.002. 

D. 0.003. 

Answer = 0.001

226.  What is accelerator?. 

A.  Which speed up the initial set of concrete. 

B.  Which delays the initial set of concrete. 

C.  Which speed up the final set of concrete. 

D.  Which delays the final set of concrete. 

Answer =  Which speed up the initial set of concrete

227.  What is retender?. 

A.  Which speed up the initial set of concrete. 

B.  Which delays the initial set of concrete. 

C.  Which speed up the final set of concrete. 

D.  Which delays the final set of concrete. 

Answer =  Which delays the initial set of concrete

228.  “NaOH is the example of retenders”. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

229.  “Zinc is the example of retenders”. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

230.  Retarders are used to:. 

A.  Offset the accelerating effect of cold weather on the setting of concrete. 

B.  Offset the accelerating effect of hot weather on the setting of concrete. 

C.  Offset the Retarding effect of cold weather on the setting of concrete. 

D.  Offset the Retarding effect of hot weather on the setting of concrete. 

Answer =  Offset the accelerating effect of hot weather on the setting of concrete

231.  At normal temperatures addition of sugar _____________ per cent have little effect on the rate of hydration. 

A.  .5-1. 

B.  1-2. 

C.  .05-1. 

D.  .1-.2. 

Answer =  .05-1

232.  Pick up the correct statement from the following.. 

A.  Calcium fluosilicates acts as a retarders. 

B.  CaCl2 acts as a retarders. 

C.  Gypsum acts as a retarders. 

D.  Gypsum acts as an accelerators. 

Answer =  Gypsum acts as a retarders

233.  Setting time of cement increases by adding ____________. 

A.  Gypsum. 

B.  CaCl2. 

C.  NaOH. 

D.  Hydrogen peroxide. 

Answer =  Gypsum

234.  Retarders used at grouting oil wells, where temperature is about _____________ oC.. 

A. 100.0. 

B. 150.0. 

C. 200.0. 

D. 250.0. 

Answer = 200.0

235.  Minute spherical bubbles of size ranging from ______________ microns.. 

A.  1-100. 

B.  5-80. 

C.  15-20. 

D.  50-60. 

Answer =  5-80

236.  What is Silica Fume?. 

A.  Silica fume is a byproduct of producing silicon metal or ferrosilicon alloys. 

B.  Silica fume is a mono product of producing silicon metal or ferrosilicon alloys. 

C.  Most commonly found in nature as quartz and in various living organisms. 

D.  Hydrocarbon combustion affords the two principal carbon oxides: carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. 

Answer =  Silica fume is a byproduct of producing silicon metal or ferrosilicon alloys

237.  Silica fume is ______________. 

A.  Less reactive. 

B.  Neutral. 

C.  More reactive. 

D.  Absent in concrete. 

Answer =  More reactive

238.  Concrete containing silica fume can have very __________ strength and can be very __________. 

A.  Low, Durable. 

B.  High, Durable. 

C.  Low, brittle. 

D.  High, brittle. 

Answer =  High, Durable

239.  Content of SiO2 in silica fume is ___________. 

A. 0.52. 

B. 0.35. 

C. 0.219. 

D.  85-97%. 

Answer =  85-97%

240.  Content of CaO in silica fume?. 

A. 5.0. 

B. 21.0. 

C. 40.0. 

D.  <1. 

Answer =  <1

241.  The specific surface (m2/kg) of silica fume.. 

A. 370.0. 

B.  15000-30000. 

C. 45000.0. 

D. 420.0. 

Answer =  15000-30000

242.  Specific Gravity of silica fume.. 

A. 2.38. 

B. 2.65. 

C. 2.94. 

D. 2.22. 

Answer = 2.22

243.  Bulk density of the silica fume varies from. 

A.  130-600 kg/m3. 

B.  650 kg/mm3. 

C.  75-150 kg/mm3. 

D.  750 kg/mm3. 

Answer =  130-600 kg/m3

244.  Spherical particles in silica fume has diameter of _______. 

A.  <1 μm. 

B.  >1 μm. 

C.  1 μm. 

D.  .1 μm. 

Answer =  <1 μm

245.  Silica fume is usually added during ____________. 

A.  Before concrete production at a concrete plant. 

B.  After concrete production at a concrete plant. 

C.  Concrete production at a concrete plant. 

D.  Curing. 

Answer =  Concrete production at a concrete plant

246.  What is the content of SiO2 in fly ash?. 

A.  30-60%. 

B.  15-30%. 

C.  Up to 30%. 

D.  1-7%. 

Answer =  30-60%

247.  What is the content of Al2O3 in fly ash?. 

A.  30-60%. 

B.  15-30%. 

C.  Up to 30%. 

D.  1-7%. 

Answer =  15-30%

248.  What is the content of unburnt fuel in fly ash?. 

A.  30-60%. 

B.  15-30%. 

C.  Up to 30%. 

D.  1-7%. 

Answer =  Up to 30%

249.  Air entrainment in concrete increases ___________. 

A.  Strength. 

B.  Workability. 

C.  The effect of temp variations. 

D.  The unit weight. 

Answer =  Workability

250.  Find the odd one out.. 

A.  Clay and shales. 

B.  Opalinccherts. 

C.  Diatomaceous earth. 

D.  Surkhi. 

Answer =  Surkhi

251.  Find the odd one out.. 

A.  Fly ash. 

B.  Silica Fume. 

C.  Rice husk ash. 

D.  Volcanic tuffs. 

Answer =  Volcanic tuffs

252.  Find the odd one out.. 

A.  Finely divided minerals. 

B.  Air entraining agents. 

C.  Synthetic derivatives. 

D.  Natural derivatives. 

Answer =  Natural derivatives

253.  Find the odd one out.. 

A.  Water reducing plasticizers. 

B.  Water reducing plasticizers. 

C.  High performance plasticizers. 

D.  Super plasticizers. 

Answer =  Super plasticizers

254.  Which one is not chemical admixtures?. 

A.  Accelerators. 

B.  Retarders. 

C.  Water-reducing agents. 

D.  Silica fume. 

Answer =  Silica fume

255.  Which one is not the part of chemical and mineral admixtures?. 

A.  Curing compounds. 

B.  GGBFS. 

C.  Metakaoline. 

D.  Pumicites. 

Answer =  Curing compounds

256.  Air entrainment in concrete increases ____________. 

A.  Strength. 

B.  Workability. 

C.  The effect of temp variations. 

D.  The unit weight. 

Answer =  Workability

257.  In a dry environment, concrete strength will be loosed as much as ___________ % in moist environment.. 

A. 30.0. 

B. 40.0. 

C. 50.0. 

D. 60.0. 

Answer = 50.0

258.  Concrete placed in cold weather will take ____________ time to gain strength.. 

A.  No. 

B.  Less. 

C.  More. 

D.  Equal to hot weather. 

Answer =  More

259.  After finishing concrete surface must be kept ___________. 

A.  Dry. 

B.  First dry it and then wet it. 

C.  First wet it and then dry it. 

D.  Wet. 

Answer =  Wet

260.  Dry intervals in surface wetting leads to ___________. 

A.  Cracking. 

B.  Fogging. 

C.  High strength. 

D.  Good workability. 

Answer =  Cracking

261.  Which one is not chemical admixtures?. 

A.  Accelerators. 

B.  Retarders. 

C.  Water-reducing agents. 

D.  Silica fume. 

Answer =  Silica fume

262.  Damp proofing ____________ resist water well enough.. 

A.  Does. 

B.  Does not. 

C.  Doesn’t effect. 

D.  Depends on the temperature. 

Answer =  Does not

263.  Chemically active pore fillers ____________ the setting of concrete.. 

A.  Retards. 

B.  Decrease. 

C.  Accelerates. 

D.  No change. 

Answer =  Accelerates

264.  Chemically inactive pore fillers ____________ the workability.. 

A.  Decrease. 

B.  Increase. 

C.  Don’t affect. 

D.  Improve. 

Answer =  Improve

265.  What do you mean by workability?. 

A.  ASTM C 125 defines workability as the property determining the effort required to manipulate a freshly mixed quantity of concrete with maximum loss of homogeneity. 

B.  ASTM C 125 defines workability as the property determining the effort required to manipulate a freshly mixed quantity of concrete with minimum loss of heterogeneity. 

C.  The strict definition of workability is the amount of useful external work, against the external friction between the individual particles in the concrete, necessary to produce full compaction. 

D.  The workability is also defined as the ease with which a freshly mixed concrete can be properly compacted and also that it can be transported, placed, and finished. 

Answer =  The workability is also defined as the ease with which a freshly mixed concrete can be properly compacted and also that it can be transported, placed, and finished

266.  Workability of concrete can be improved by addition. 

A.  Iron. 

B.  Sodium. 

C.  Zinc. 

D.  Sulphur. 

Answer =  Zinc

267.  Workability of concrete can be improved by. 

A.  More sand. 

B.  More cement. 

C.  More fine aggregates. 

D.  Fineness of coarse aggregate. 

Answer =  More cement

268.  Workability of concrete can be improved by ___________. 

A.  Increasing size of aggregates. 

B.  Decreasing size of aggregates. 

C.  Increasing fine aggregates. 

D.  Increasing flaky aggregates. 

Answer =  Increasing size of aggregates

269.  Workability of concrete is directly proportional to. 

A.  Grading of the aggregates. 

B.  Time of transit. 

C.  Aggregates cement ratio. 

D.  Water cement ratio. 

Answer =  Grading of the aggregates

270.  Workability of concrete is inversely proportional to. 

A.  Grading of the aggregates. 

B.  Time of transit. 

C.  Aggregates cement ratio. 

D.  Water cement ratio. 

Answer =  Water cement ratio

271.  If compaction factor of concrete is .90, then workability is ____________. 

A.  Low. 

B.  Very low. 

C.  Medium. 

D.  High. 

Answer =  Medium

272.  A compaction factor of .85 for a cement concrete sample indicates ___________. 

A.  Low workability. 

B.  Medium workability. 

C.  Good workability. 

D.  Very good workability. 

Answer =  Low workability

273.  Adding water increases __________. 

A.  Workability. 

B.  Strength. 

C.  Fame. 

D.  Quality. 

Answer =  Workability

274.  Why Shape and texture of aggregates is must?. 

A.  Smooth surfaces give better workability. 

B.  Smooth surfaces give poor workability. 

C.  Rough surfaces give better workability. 

D.  Rough surfaces give poor workability. 

Answer =  Smooth surfaces give better workability

275.  Workability of concrete is measured by:. 

A.  Vicat apparatus test. 

B.  Slump test. 

C.  Minimum void method. 

D.  Talbot Richard test. 

Answer =  Slump test

276.  Which test gives good results for rich mixes?. 

A.  Slump test. 

B.  Compacting factor test. 

C.  Flow table test. 

D.  VeBe test. 

Answer =  Slump test

277.  Which test used for low workable concretes?. 

A.  Slump test. 

B.  Compacting factor test. 

C.  Flow table test. 

D.  VeBe test. 

Answer =  Compacting factor test

278.  Which test Used for high workable concretes?. 

A.  Slump test. 

B.  Compacting factor test. 

C.  Flow table test. 

D.  VeBe test. 

Answer =  Flow table test

279.  Which test used for fiber reinforced concrete?. 

A.  Slump test. 

B.  Compacting factor test. 

C.  Flow table test. 

D.  VeBe test. 

Answer =  VeBe test

280.  ___________ is practical in field test.. 

A.  Slump test. 

B.  Compacting factor test. 

C.  Flow table test. 

D.  Kelly Ball Test. 

Answer =  Kelly Ball Test

281.  What is the compaction factor for medium degree of workability?. 

A. 0.78. 

B. 0.85. 

C. 0.92. 

D. 0.95. 

Answer = 0.92

282.  What is the Vee-Bee time for medium degree of workability?. 

A.  10-20 sec. 

B.  5-10 sec. 

C.  2-5 sec. 

D.  35 sec. 

Answer =  2-5 sec

283.  The water–cement ratio is the ratio of ___. 

A.  Weight of water to the weight of cement. 

B.  Volume of water to the volume of cement. 

C.  Density of water to the Density of cement. 

D.  Weight of water to the weight of aggregates. 

Answer =  Weight of water to the weight of cement

284.  A lower ratio leads to ___. 

A.  Higher strength and durability. 

B.  Higher strength but low durability. 

C.  Lower strength but high durability. 

D.  Lower strength and durability. 

Answer =  Higher strength and durability

285.  Workability can be resolved __________. 

A.  With not using of plasticizers. 

B.  With use of plasticizers. 

C.  With the use of both plasticizers and super plasticizers. 

D.  With not using of both plasticizers and super plasticizers. 

Answer =  With the use of both plasticizers and super plasticizers

286.  How to improve the workability of concrete.. 

A.  Increase the w/c ratio. 

B.  Decrease the w/c ratio. 

C.  Decrease the size of aggregates. 

D.  Don’t mix it for longer time. 

Answer =  Increase the w/c ratio

287.  What is workability?. 

A.  When it is easily placed and compacted heterogeneous. 

B.  When it is easily placed and compacted homogenous. 

C.  When it is not easily placed. 

D.  When it is easily placed but not compacted homogenous. 

Answer =  When it is easily placed and compacted homogenous

288.  What is the compaction factor for low degree of workability?. 

A. 0.78. 

B. 0.85. 

C. 0.92. 

D. 0.95. 

Answer = 0.85

289.  What is the compaction factor for medium degree of workability?. 

A. 0.78. 

B. 0.85. 

C. 0.92. 

D. 0.95. 

Answer = 0.92

290.  What is the Vee-Bee time for medium degree of workability?. 

A.  10-20 sec. 

B.  5-10 sec. 

C.  2-5 sec. 

D.  35 sec. 

Answer =  2-5 sec

291.  Pick up the correct statement from the following:. 

A.  Gypsum in cement decreases the setting time. 

B.  The first compound of cement which reacts with water, is C2S. 

C.  Bulking of sand is less when its particles are fine. 

D.  Dry process is less economically. 

Answer =  Gypsum in cement decreases the setting time

292.  What is the moisture content in slurry for wet process?. 

A.  35-50%. 

B. 0.12. 

C.  40-45%. 

D. 1.0. 

Answer =  35-50%

293.  The slurry, in its movement down the kiln, encounters a progressively higher temperature. At first, the water is driven off and ___ is liberated.. 

A.  SiO2. 

B.  CO2. 

C.  Gypsum. 

D.  CaO. 

Answer =  CO2

294.  Which compound is liberates higher heat?. 

A.  C2S. 

B.  C3S. 

C.  C3A. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3S

295.  Which compound is liberates lower heat?. 

A.  C2S. 

B.  C3S. 

C.  C3A. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C2S

296.  Which compound may lead to a rapid stiffening of the paste with a large amount of the heat generation?. 

A.  C2S. 

B.  C3S. 

C.  C3A. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3A

297.  Which chemical compostion has highest content in OPC?. 

A.  Alumina. 

B.  Silica. 

C.  Lime. 

D.  Iron Oxide. 

Answer =  Lime

298.  Excess in lime causes ___. 

A.  The cement to shrink and integrate. 

B.  The cement to shrink and disintegrate. 

C.  The cement to expand and integrate. 

D.  The cement to expand and disintegrate. 

Answer =  The cement to expand and disintegrate

299.  Silica in excess causes ____. 

A.  The cement to set slowly. 

B.  The cement to set quickly. 

C.  The cement to expand. 

D.  The cement to disintegrate. 

Answer =  The cement to set slowly

300.  Alumina in excess causes ____. 

A.  Reduces the strength of the cement. 

B.  Inceases the strength of the cement. 

C.  No change. 

D.  Sometimes increase or decrease the strength of the cement. 

Answer =  Reduces the strength of the cement

301.  What is curing?. 

A.  Dehydration. 

B.  Hydration. 

C.  Drying. 

D.  Dipping. 

Answer =  Hydration

302.  In a dry environment, concrete strength will be loosed as much as _________ % in moist environment.. 

A. 30.0. 

B. 40.0. 

C. 50.0. 

D. 60.0. 

Answer = 50.0

303.  Concrete placed in cold weather will take __________ time to gain strength.. 

A.  No. 

B.  Less. 

C.  More. 

D.  Equal to hot weather. 

Answer =  More

304.  After finishing concrete surface must be kept _________. 

A.  Dry. 

B.  First dry it and then wet it. 

C.  First wet it and then dry it. 

D.  Wet. 

Answer =  Wet

305.  Dry intervals in surface wetting leads to __________. 

A.  Cracking. 

B.  Fogging. 

C.  High strength. 

D.  Good workability. 

Answer =  Cracking

306.  Contractors place blankets over the concrete to ____________. 

A.  Increase the rate of evaporation. 

B.  Slow the rate of evaporation. 

C.  To increase the strength. 

D.  Ease to do work. 

Answer =  Slow the rate of evaporation

307.  Well cured concrete _________ thermal, plastic & drying shrinkage cracks.. 

A.  Doesn’t affect. 

B.  Maximize. 

C.  Minimize. 

D.  Create. 

Answer =  Minimize

308.  Which method is the most common and cheaper for water curing?. 

A.  Ponding. 

B.  Sprinkling. 

C.  Mist curing. 

D.  Wet covering. 

Answer =  Ponding

309.  The hydration that provides the initial mix and chemical bond of the concrete’s ingredients is the. 

A.  First step. 

B.  Second step. 

C.  Third step. 

D.  Fourth step. 

Answer =  First step

310.  What is the full form of rH?. 

A.  Rhesus factor. 

B.  Relative humidity. 

C.  Rush hour. 

D.  Radio head. 

Answer =  Relative humidity

311.  Water cement ratio is ______. 

A.  Volume of water to the volume of cement. 

B.  Volume of water to the volume of concrete. 

C.  Volume of concrete to the volume of cement. 

D.  Volume of water to the volume of aggregates. 

Answer =  Volume of water to the volume of cement

312.  A lower ratio leads to _____. 

A.  High strength. 

B.  Low strength. 

C.  Low durability. 

D.  Ease to work. 

Answer =  High strength

313.  For concrete exposed to a very aggressive environment the w/c should be lower than _________. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 0.5. 

C. 0.4. 

D. 0.8. 

Answer = 0.4

314.  What is the range of water in M10?. 

A.  34-36L. 

B.  29-32L. 

C.  26-30L. 

D.  21-27L. 

Answer =  34-36L

315.  What is the range of water in M15?. 

A.  34-36L. 

B.  29-32L. 

C.  26-30L. 

D.  21-27L. 

Answer =  29-32L

316.  What is the range of water in M20?. 

A.  34-36L. 

B.  29-32L. 

C.  26-30L. 

D.  21-27L. 

Answer =  26-30L

317.  What is the range of water in M25?. 

A.  34-36L. 

B.  29-32L. 

C.  26-30L. 

D.  21-27L. 

Answer =  21-27L

318.  What is the approx. quantity of water in M5?. 

A.  60L. 

B.  45L. 

C.  34L. 

D.  85L. 

Answer =  60L

319.  What is the approx. quantity of water in M7?. 

A.  60L. 

B.  45L. 

C.  34L. 

D.  85L. 

Answer =  45L

320.  What is the approx. quantity of water in M10?. 

A.  60L. 

B.  45L. 

C.  34L. 

D.  85L. 

Answer =  34L

321.  What is the gel/space ratio?. 

A.  Volume of water to the volume of cement. 

B.  Volume of the hydrated cement paste to the sum of volumes of the hydrated cement. 

C.  Volume of the hydrated cement paste to the sum of volumes of the hydrated cement and of the capillary pores. 

D.  Volume of gel to the volume of space present in concrete. 

Answer =  Volume of the hydrated cement paste to the sum of volumes of the hydrated cement and of the capillary pores

322.  Who has established the relation between the strength and gel/space ratio?. 

A.  Abrams. 

B.  Power. 

C.  Brownyard. 

D.  Power and Brownyard. 

Answer =  Power and Brownyard

323.  Power showed that the strength of concrete bears a specific relationship with the gel/space ratio. He found the relationship to be __________. 

A.  240x3. 

B.  140x3. 

C.  240x2. 

D.  140x2. 

Answer =  240x3

324.  What does 240 in power’s experiment stands for?. 

A.  Gel space ratio. 

B.  Water cement ratio. 

C.  Intrinsic strength of gel. 

D.  Extrinsic strength of gel. 

Answer =  Intrinsic strength of gel

325.  What does x3 in power’s experiment stands for?. 

A.  Gel space ratio. 

B.  Water cement ratio. 

C.  Intrinsic strength of gel. 

D.  Extrinsic strength of gel. 

Answer =  Gel space ratio

326.  What unit is present with the 240?. 

A.  Pa. 

B.  MPa. 

C.  GPa. 

D.  KPa. 

Answer =  MPa

327.  Gel/Space ratio = x = Volume of gel / Space available = 0.657 C / 0.319 C+ Wo. Here C stands for?. 

A.  Weight of cement in kg. 

B.  Weight of cement in g. 

C.  Volume of gel. 

D.  Volume of mixing water in ml. 

Answer =  Weight of cement in g

328.  Gel/Space ratio = x = Volume of gel / Space available = 0.657 C / 0.319 C+ Wo. Here Wo stands for?. 

A.  Weight of cement in kg. 

B.  Weight of cement in g. 

C.  Volume of gel. 

D.  Volume of mixing water in ml. 

Answer =  Volume of mixing water in ml

329.  According to fig. what is the approx. value of strength of 50mm cube in MPa for gel-space ratio .6?. 

A. 20.0. 

B. 40.0. 

C. 60.0. 

D. 80.0. 

Answer = 40.0

330.  What is concrete maturity?. 

A.  Concrete strength is directly related to age history. 

B.  Concrete strength is indirectly related to age history. 

C.  Concrete strength is directly related to age and its temperature history. 

D.  Concrete strength is indirectly related to age and its temperature history. 

Answer =  Concrete strength is directly related to age and its temperature history

331.  Maturity methods provide a ___________ simple approach for strength of concrete.. 

A.  Relatively. 

B.  Technically. 

C.  Absolutely. 

D.  Actually. 

Answer =  Relatively

332.  The maturity method is a ___________ approach to predict the early age strength gain of concrete.. 

A.  Difficult. 

B.  Convenient. 

C.  Inconvenient. 

D.  There is no such method. 

Answer =  Convenient

333.  It is a __________ method.. 

A.  Destructive Testing. 

B.  Nondestructive testing. 

C.  Ring Tension Test. 

D.  Compression Test. 

Answer =  Nondestructive testing

334.  It __________ the quantity and ___________ cost of sampling and testing. 

A.  Increases, Increases. 

B.  Decreases, decreases. 

C.  Increases, Decreases. 

D.  Decreases, Increases. 

Answer =  Decreases, decreases

335.  What does x3 in power’s experiment stands for?. 

A.  Gel space ratio. 

B.  Water cement ratio. 

C.  Intrinsic strength of gel. 

D.  Extrinsic strength of gel. 

Answer =  Gel space ratio

336.  A lower ratio leads to. 

A.  High strength. 

B.  Low strength. 

C.  Low durability. 

D.  Ease to work. 

Answer =  High strength

337.  The material used for UHPC provides compressive strengths up to. 

A.  17000 psi. 

B.  20000 psi. 

C.  25000 psi. 

D.  29000 psi. 

Answer =  29000 psi

338.  “Where the matrix is extremely dense, a weak aggregate may become the weak”. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

339.  What is the compaction factor for medium degree of workability?. 

A. 0.78. 

B. 0.85. 

C. 0.92. 

D. 0.95. 

Answer = 0.92

340.  What could be the possible answer among the following for compressive strength of high strength concrete?. 

A.  10MPa. 

B.  20MPa. 

C.  30MPa. 

D.  40MPa. 

Answer =  40MPa

341.  What could be the possible answer among the following for water cement ratio for high strength concrete?. 

A. 0.5. 

B. 0.45. 

C. 0.4. 

D. 0.35. 

Answer = 0.35

342.  Due to low w/c ratio ___________. 

A.  It doesn’t cause any problems. 

B.  It causes problems. 

C.  Workability is easy. 

D.  Strength is more. 

Answer =  It causes problems

343.  Which type of aggregates are used to produce 70MPa compressive strength?. 

A.  All in one. 

B.  Fine. 

C.  Coarse. 

D.  Flaky. 

Answer =  Coarse

344.  Maximum size of aggregates are used to produce 70MPa compressive strength is ________. 

A.  20-30 mm. 

B.  10-20 mm. 

C.  30-40 mm. 

D.  40-50 mm. 

Answer =  20-30 mm

345.  Maximum size of aggregates are used to produce 100MPa compressive strength is __________. 

A.  20-30 mm. 

B.  10-20 mm. 

C.  30-40 mm. 

D.  40-50 mm. 

Answer =  10-20 mm

346.  “In bridges, HSC is used”. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

347.  Use of HSC in column __________. 

A.  It increase the size of the column. 

B.  It decrease the size of the column. 

C.  Doesn’t affect. 

D.  Decrease the strength. 

Answer =  It decrease the size of the column

348.  Use of HSC in column ___________. 

A.  Decrease the no of steel required in the same column. 

B.  Increase the no of steel required in the same column. 

C.  Decrease the no of steel required in the different column. 

D.  Increase the no of steel required in the different column. 

Answer =  Decrease the no of steel required in the same column

349.  High strength concrete is defined purely on the basis __________. 

A.  Compressive strength. 

B.  Poor strength. 

C.  Tensile strength. 

D.  Good strength. 

Answer =  Compressive strength

350.  Ultra-High Performance Concrete (UHPC), also known as ______. 

A.  Active powder concrete. 

B.  NPC. 

C.  Reactive powder concrete. 

D.  High Strength concrete. 

Answer =  Reactive powder concrete

351.  The material used for UHPC provides compressive strengths up to __________. 

A.  17000 psi. 

B.  20000 psi. 

C.  25000 psi. 

D.  29000 psi. 

Answer =  29000 psi

352.  The material used for UHPC provides flexural strengths up to _________. 

A.  2000 psi. 

B.  5000 psi. 

C.  7000 psi. 

D.  10000 psi. 

Answer =  7000 psi

353.  Range of modulus of elasticity for UHPC ___________. 

A.  30-35 GPa. 

B.  35-40 GPa. 

C.  40-45 GPa. 

D.  45-50 GPa. 

Answer =  45-50 GPa

354.  What is the compressive strength for UHPC?. 

A.  10-20 MPa. 

B.  60-100 MPa. 

C.  100-150 MPa. 

D.  >150 MPa. 

Answer =  100-150 MPa

355.  “Where the matrix is extremely dense, a weak aggregate may become the weak”. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

356.  What is the percentage of water by weight in UHPC?. 

A. 28.5. 

B. 4.4. 

C. 1.2. 

D. 6.2. 

Answer = 4.4

357.  What is the percentage of PC by weight in UHPC?. 

A. 28.5. 

B. 4.4. 

C. 1.2. 

D. 6.2. 

Answer = 28.5

358.  What is the percentage of steel fibre by weight in UHPC?. 

A. 28.5. 

B. 4.4. 

C. 1.2. 

D. 6.2. 

Answer = 6.2

359.  What is the percentage of accelerator by weight in UHPC?. 

A. 28.5. 

B. 4.4. 

C. 1.2. 

D. 6.2. 

Answer = 1.2

360.  It is ___________ strength and ___________ permeability.. 

A.  High, high. 

B.  Low, low. 

C.  High, low. 

D.  Low, high. 

Answer =  High, low

361.  “High Performance concrete works out to be economical”. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

362.  “HPC is not used in high span bridges”. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = FALSE

363.  Concrete having 28- days’ compressive strength in the range of 60 to 100 MPa.. 

A.  HPC. 

B.  VHPC. 

C.  OPC. 

D.  HSC. 

Answer =  HPC

364.  Concrete having 28-days compressive strength in the range of 100 to 150 MPa.. 

A.  HPC. 

B.  VHPC. 

C.  OPC. 

D.  HSC. 

Answer =  VHPC

365.  High-Performance Concrete is ____________ as compared to Normal Strength Concrete.. 

A.  Less brittle. 

B.  Brittle. 

C.  More brittle. 

D.  Highly ductile. 

Answer =  More brittle

366.  The choice of cement for high-strength concrete should not be based only on mortar-cube tests but it should also include tests of compressive strengths of concrete at ___________ days.. 

A.  28, 56, 91. 

B.  28, 60, 90. 

C.  30, 60, 90. 

D.  30, 45, 60. 

Answer =  28, 56, 91

367.  For high-strength concrete, a cement should produce a minimum 7-days mortar-cube strength of approximately ___ MPa.. 

A. 10.0. 

B. 20.0. 

C. 30.0. 

D. 40.0. 

Answer = 30.0

368.  ____________ mm nominal maximum size aggregates gives optimum strength.. 

A.  9.5 and 10.5. 

B.  10.5 and 12.5. 

C.  9.5 and 12.5. 

D.  11.5 and 12.5. 

Answer =  9.5 and 12.5

369.  Due to low w/c ratio. 

A.  It doesn’t cause any problems. 

B.  It causes problems. 

C.  Workability is easy. 

D.  Strength is more. 

Answer =  It causes problems

370.  Clay minerals are found in most _________. 

A.  Igneous Environment. 

B.  Sedimentary environment. 

C.  Metamorphic environment. 

D.  In all environment. 

Answer =  Sedimentary environment

371.  Theoretical value for bulk modulus of clay __________. 

A.  20 and 50 GPa. 

B.  30 and 40 GPa. 

C.  100-150 GPa. 

D.  200 GPa. 

Answer =  20 and 50 GPa

372.  Young’s modulus for dickite is ___________. 

A.  5.2 GPa. 

B.  6.2 GPa. 

C.  7.2 GPa. 

D.  8.2 GPa. 

Answer =  6.2 GPa

373.  The grain density of the clay powders was measured using _______. 

A.  Hydrostatic pressure. 

B.  Cylindrical cavity. 

C.  Pycnometer. 

D.  Helium porosimeter. 

Answer =  Pycnometer

374.  To avoid trapped air produced by clay flocculation, we used ___ in distilled water.. 

A.  (NaPO3)6. 

B.  Na4P2O7. 

C.  Na5P3O10. 

D.  PO4. 

Answer =  (NaPO3)6

375.  IS 456 of 2000 gives the modulus of elasticity as _______. 

A.  Ec = 5000 fck.5. 

B.  Ec = 5000 fck2. 

C.  Ec = 5000 fck3. 

D.  Ec = 5000 fck1/3. 

Answer =  Ec = 5000 fck.5

376.  What is elastic strains?. 

A.  These are the instantaneous deformations that occur when an external stress is first applied. 

B.  These deformations occur either on loss of moisture from the concrete on cooling of concrete. 

C.  It is the time-dependent deformation that occurs on the prolonged application of stress. 

D.  Any one or combinations of the above types of deformations in a hardened concrete leads to cracking. 

Answer =  These are the instantaneous deformations that occur when an external stress is first applied

377.  Static modulus of elasticity of concrete has been related to its ________. 

A.  Tensile strength. 

B.  Compressive strength. 

C.  External strength. 

D.  Applied force. 

Answer =  Compressive strength

378.  If the value of fck is 100 then what will be the modulus of elasticity?. 

A. 5000.0. 

B. 500.0. 

C. 50000.0. 

D. 50.0. 

Answer = 50000.0

379.  Creep is ____________. 

A.  Time dependent. 

B.  Time independent. 

C.  Pressure dependent. 

D.  Temperature dependent. 

Answer =  Time dependent

380.  If creep effect is considered at a given load, the modulus determined is referred to as ______. 

A.  Short term modulus of elasticity. 

B.  Elasticity. 

C.  Long term modulus of elasticity. 

D.  Creep effect. 

Answer =  Long term modulus of elasticity

381.  If θ is creep coefficient then what is Elong?. 

A.  Eshort /(1+θ). 

B.  Eshort *(1+θ). 

C.  Eavg /(1+θ). 

D.  Eavg *(1+θ). 

Answer =  Eshort /(1+θ)

382.  Concrete exhibits initial elastic strain which depends on __________. 

A.  Magnitude of applied stress. 

B.  Rate of applied stress. 

C.  Magnitude and rate of applied stress. 

D.  Elastic modulus. 

Answer =  Magnitude and rate of applied stress

383.  This strain increases over time due to _________. 

A.  Creep. 

B.  Elastic modulus. 

C.  Short term modulus of elasticity. 

D.  Long term modulus of elasticity. 

Answer =  Creep

384.  If the stress is removed, the specimen shows an instantaneous recovery strain ___ the elastic strain on loading.. 

A.  Higher than. 

B.  Lower than. 

C.  Equal to. 

D.  Much greater than. 

Answer =  Lower than

385.  According to Lamond and Pielert, it’s the ____ that exhibits creep upon application of load on a concrete specimen.. 

A.  Aggregates. 

B.  Water. 

C.  Cement paste. 

D.  Admixtures. 

Answer =  Cement paste

386.  When concrete is loaded it experiences a large strain upon loading known as. 

A.  Differential elastic strain. 

B.  Instantaneous elastic strain. 

C.  Differential inelastic strain. 

D.  Instantaneous inelastic strain. 

Answer =  Instantaneous elastic strain

387.  Aggregate has therefore a direct effect on the long-term deformations of concrete because __________. 

A.  Low elastic modulus aggregate will produce a stiffer concrete that will have relatively higher resistance to deformation. 

B.  High elastic modulus aggregate will produce a stiffer concrete that will have relatively higher resistance to deformation. 

C.  High elastic modulus aggregate will produce a stiffer concrete that will have relatively lower resistance to deformation. 

D.  Low elastic modulus aggregate will produce a stiffer concrete that will have relatively lower resistance to deformation. 

Answer =  High elastic modulus aggregate will produce a stiffer concrete that will have relatively higher resistance to deformation

388.  Creep ___ as the age of application of load _____. 

A.  Increase, increase. 

B.  Increase, decrease. 

C.  Decrease, decrease. 

D.  Decrease, increase. 

Answer =  Decrease, increase

389.  The __________ the aggregate, the ________ is the magnitude of creep.. 

A.  Stronger, more. 

B.  Weaker, more. 

C.  Stronger, less. 

D.  Weaker, less. 

Answer =  Stronger, less

390.  The _________ the modulus of elasticity the _________ is the creep.. 

A.  Higher, more. 

B.  Lower, more. 

C.  Higher, less. 

D.  Lower, less. 

Answer =  Higher, less

391.  A ________ paste structure undergoes ________ creep.. 

A.  Good, high. 

B.  Poor, high. 

C.  Good, average. 

D.  Poor, low. 

Answer =  Poor, high

392.  Creep is _________ to the strength of concrete.. 

A.  Equal. 

B.  Similar. 

C.  Directly proportional. 

D.  Inversely proportional. 

Answer =  Inversely proportional

393.  The rate of creep rapidly ________ with time.. 

A.  Increase. 

B.  Decrease. 

C.  Doesn’t affect. 

D.  Depends on the temperature. 

Answer =  Decrease

394.  Aggregates with moisture movement and _________ elastic modulus cause a _________ amount of creep.. 

A.  High, higher. 

B.  Low, lower. 

C.  High, lower. 

D.  Low, higher. 

Answer =  Low, higher

395.  The rate of creep generally _________ with the _________ of the size of aggregates.. 

A.  Increase, increase. 

B.  Decrease, decease. 

C.  Increase, decrease. 

D.  2.5, 12mm. 

Answer =  Increase, decrease

396.  What is elastic strains?. 

A.  These are the instantaneous deformations that occur when an external stress is first applied. 

B.  These deformations occur either on loss of moisture from the concrete on cooling of concrete. 

C.  It is the time-dependent deformation that occurs on the prolonged application of stress. 

D.  Any one or combinations of the above types of deformations in a hardened concrete leads to cracking.. 

Answer =  These are the instantaneous deformations that occur when an external stress is first applied

397.  Static modulus of elasticity of concrete has been related to its. 

A.  Tensile strength. 

B.  Compressive strength. 

C.  External strength. 

D.  Applied force. 

Answer =  Compressive strength

398.  Coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete is ________ coefficient of thermal expansion in aggregates.. 

A.  Directly proportional. 

B.  Inversely proportional. 

C.  Equal. 

D.  More than. 

Answer =  Directly proportional

399.  How many types of shrinkages, caused due to loss of water?. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 3.0

400.  How many types of shrinkages, caused due to cooling and carbonation?. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 2.0

401.  Reduction in the volume due to shrinkage causes. 

A.  Low volume. 

B.  Volumetric strain. 

C.  Volumetric stress. 

D.  W/c ratio. 

Answer =  Volumetric strain

402.  Volumetric strain is equal to ___________ times the linear strain.. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 3.0

403.  In practice, shrinkage is measured simply as a:. 

A.  Linear strain. 

B.  Linear stress. 

C.  Volumetric strain. 

D.  Volumetric stress. 

Answer =  Linear strain

404.  “However, fall of temperature and carbonation may also cause the shrinkage”. Is this statement true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

405.  It is observed that 14-34% of the 20 years shrinkage occurs in ________. 

A.  2 weeks. 

B.  3 months. 

C.  6 months. 

D.  1 year. 

Answer =  2 weeks

406.  It is observed that 40-80% of the 20 years shrinkage occurs in _____________. 

A.  2 weeks. 

B.  3 months. 

C.  6 months. 

D.  1 year. 

Answer =  3 months

407.  It is observed that 66-85% of the 20 years shrinkage occurs in _____. 

A.  2 weeks. 

B.  3 months. 

C.  6 months. 

D.  1 year. 

Answer =  1 year

408.  “If the concrete is placed in 100% relative humidity for a length of time then there WON’T be any shrinkage”. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

409.  The magnitude of autogenous shrinkage is ________. 

A. 0.001. 

B. 1.0E-4. 

C. 0.01. 

D. 0.1. 

Answer = 0.01

410.  Which aggregates have high shrinkage?. 

A.  Grave. 

B.  Sand stone. 

C.  Quartz. 

D.  Granite. 

Answer =  Sand stone

411.  Which aggregates have low shrinkage?. 

A.  Grave. 

B.  Sand stone. 

C.  Quartz. 

D.  Granite. 

Answer =  Quartz

412.  What is plastic shrinkage?. 

A.  It is not a result of any change in the concrete production process. Rather, it is a result of certain environmental conditions which occurs in the Central Missouri area. 

B.  It is defined as the contracting of a hardened concrete mixture due to the loss of capillary water. This shrinkage causes an increase in tensile. 

C.  It is an important phenomenon in young concrete. At low w/c ratios, less than about 0.42, all the water is rapidly drawn into the hydration process and the demand for more water creates very fine capillaries. 

D.  It occurs when the concrete is exposed to air containing carbon dioxide. 

Answer =  It is not a result of any change in the concrete production process. Rather, it is a result of certain environmental conditions which occurs in the Central Missouri area

413.  How many types of shrinkages, caused due to loss of water?. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 3.0

414.  How many types of shrinkages, caused due to cooling and carbonation?. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 2.0

415.  What is drying shrinkage?. 

A.  It is not a result of any change in the concrete production process. Rather, it is a result of certain environmental conditions which frequently occur in the Central Missouri area. 

B.  It is defined as the contracting of a hardened concrete mixture due to the loss of capillary water. This shrinkage causes an increase in tensile. 

C.  It is an important phenomenon in young concrete. At low w/c ratios, less than about 0.42, all the water is rapidly drawn into the hydration process and the demand for more water creates very fine capillaries. 

D.  It occurs when the concrete is exposed to air containing carbon dioxide. 

Answer =  It is defined as the contracting of a hardened concrete mixture due to the loss of capillary water. This shrinkage causes an increase in tensile

416.  What is autogenous shrinkage?. 

A.  It is not a result of any change in the concrete production process. Rather, it is a result of certain environmental conditions which frequently occur in the Central Missouri area. 

B.  It is defined as the contracting of a hardened concrete mixture due to the loss of capillary water. This shrinkage causes an increase in tensile. 

C.  It is an important phenomenon in young concrete. At low w/c ratios, less than about 0.42, all the water is rapidly drawn into the hydration process and the demand for more water creates very fine capillaries. 

D.  It occurs when the concrete is exposed to air containing carbon dioxide. 

Answer =  It is an important phenomenon in young concrete. At low w/c ratios, less than about 0.42, all the water is rapidly drawn into the hydration process and the demand for more water creates very fine capillaries

417.  What is carbonation shrinkage?. 

A.  It is not a result of any change in the concrete production process. Rather, it is a result of certain environmental conditions which frequently occur in the Central Missouri area. 

B.  It is defined as the contracting of a hardened concrete mixture due to the loss of capillary water. This shrinkage causes an increase in tensile. 

C.  It is an important phenomenon in young concrete. At low w/c ratios, less than about 0.42, all the water is rapidly drawn into the hydration process and the demand for more water creates very fine capillaries. 

D.  It occurs when the concrete is exposed to air containing carbon dioxide. 

Answer =  It occurs when the concrete is exposed to air containing carbon dioxide

418.  ACI 305.R.91 specifies Evaporation rate __ kg/hr/m2 should be avoided to prevent plastic cracking.. 

A.  <.5. 

B.  =0.5. 

C.  >.5. 

D.  Not equal to .5. 

Answer =  >.5

419.  Carbonic Acid + Ca(OH)2 ⇨ X. What is the main compound in X?. 

A.  CaCO2. 

B.  CO2. 

C.  CaCO3. 

D.  H2O. 

Answer =  CaCO3

420.  If there is continuous supply of H2O to the concrete during hydration, concrete expands due to absorption of water by the cement gel. Is it true or false?. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

421.  Reduction in the volume due to shrinkage causes _____. 

A.  Low volume. 

B.  Volumetric strain. 

C.  Volumetric stress. 

D.  W/c ratio. 

Answer =  Volumetric strain

422.  Durability of concrete is proportional to _________. 

A.  Sand content. 

B.  Water cement ratio. 

C.  Aggregate ratio. 

D.  Cement aggregate ratio. 

Answer =  Cement aggregate ratio

423.  Strength of concrete show an increase with _________. 

A.  Decrease in rate of loading. 

B.  Increase in rate of loading. 

C.  Unaffected by rate of loading. 

D.  Depends on application of load. 

Answer =  Increase in rate of loading

424.  Strength of concrete is proportional to ______________. 

A.  Sand content. 

B.  Water cement ratio. 

C.  Aggregate ratio. 

D.  Cement water ratio. 

Answer =  Cement water ratio

425.  Strength of concrete increase with _____________. 

A.  Increase with w/c ratio. 

B.  Decrease with w/c ratio. 

C.  Decrease in size of aggregates. 

D.  Decrease in curing time. 

Answer =  Decrease with w/c ratio

426.  Strength of concrete increase with _________. 

A.  Increase with w/c ratio. 

B.  Increase in fineness of cement. 

C.  Decrease in size of aggregates. 

D.  Decrease in curing time. 

Answer =  Increase in fineness of cement

427.  Approximate ratio of the strength of the cement conc of 7 days to that of 28 days (2/3). 

A. 0.75. 

B. 0.85. 

C. 1.0. 

D. 1.15. 

Answer = 0.75

428.  Approximate ratio of strength of the 30 cm cube to that of 15 cm cube is _____________. 

A. 1.1. 

B. 1.0. 

C. 0.9. 

D. 0.75. 

Answer = 0.9

429.  Approximate ratio of direct tensile strength to flexural strength is ____________. 

A. 0.25. 

B. 0.33. 

C. 0.5. 

D. 0.05. 

Answer = 0.5

430.  The addition of a pozzolanic admixture such as fly ash reduces the. 

A.  C3S. 

B.  C3A. 

C.  C2S. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3A

431.  Lowering of ____________ might also help, since this would reduce the amount of CH that forms.. 

A.  C3S. 

B.  C3A. 

C.  C2S. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3S

432.  When the ____________ content is low, most ettringite will be formed in the plastic state.. 

A.  C3SS. 

B.  C3AA. 

C.  C2S. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3AA

433.  The philosophy of prescribing low ____________ cement to improve resistance to sulphate attack.. 

A.  C3S. 

B.  C3A. 

C.  C2S. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3A

434.  The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ permeability, is the best protection against sulphate attack.. 

A.  High. 

B.  Medium. 

C.  Low. 

D.  Very low. 

Answer =  Low

435.  For concrete exposed to a very aggressive environment the w/c should be lower than. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 0.5. 

C. 0.4. 

D. 0.8. 

Answer = 0.4

436.  The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ w/c ratio, is the best protection against sulphate attack.. 

A.  High. 

B.  Medium. 

C.  Low. 

D.  Very low. 

Answer =  Low

437.  The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ cement content, is the best protection against sulphate attack.. 

A.  High. 

B.  Medium. 

C.  Low. 

D.  Very low. 

Answer =  High

438.  Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water ___________ ppm for mild exposure.. 

A.  <150. 

B.  150-1500. 

C.  150-10000. 

D.  >10000. 

Answer =  <150

439.  Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water ___________ ppm for severe exposure.. 

A. <150. 

B.  150-1500. 

C.  150-10000. 

D.  >10000. 

Answer =  150-10000

440.  The addition of a pozzolanic admixture such as fly ash reduces the. 

A.  C3S. 

B.  C3A. 

C.  C2S. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3A

441.  Lowering of ____________ might also help, since this would reduce the amount of CH that forms.. 

A.  C3S. 

B.  C3A. 

C.  C2S. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3S

442.  When the ____________ content is low, most ettringite will be formed in the plastic state.. 

A.  C3SS. 

B.  C3AA. 

C.  C2S. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3AA

443.  The philosophy of prescribing low ____________ cement to improve resistance to sulphate attack.. 

A.  C3S. 

B.  C3A. 

C.  C2S. 

D.  C4AF. 

Answer =  C3A

444.  The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ permeability, is the best protection against sulphate attack.. 

A.  High. 

B.  Medium. 

C.  Low. 

D.  Very low. 

Answer =  Low

445.  For concrete exposed to a very aggressive environment the w/c should be lower than. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 0.5. 

C. 0.4. 

D. 0.8. 

Answer = 0.4

446.  The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ w/c ratio, is the best protection against sulphate attack.. 

A.  High. 

B.  Medium. 

C.  Low. 

D.  Very low. 

Answer =  Low

447.  The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ cement content, is the best protection against sulphate attack.. 

A.  High. 

B.  Medium. 

C.  Low. 

D.  Very low. 

Answer =  High

448.  Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water ___________ ppm for mild exposure.. 

A.  <150. 

B.  150-1500. 

C.  150-10000. 

D.  >10000. 

Answer =  <150

449.  Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water ___________ ppm for severe exposure.. 

A. <150. 

B.  150-1500. 

C.  150-10000. 

D.  >10000. 

Answer =  150-10000

450.  The breaking up of cohesion in a mass of concrete is called ________. 

A.  Workability. 

B.  Segregation. 

C.  Bleeding. 

D.  Creep. 

Answer =  Segregation

451.  The separation of water or water-cement mixture from the freshly mixed concrete is known as bleeding.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

452.  The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to application of external loads, is called __________. 

A.  Workability. 

B.  Segregation. 

C.  Bleeding. 

D.  Creep. 

Answer =  Creep

453.  Harshness in concrete is due to the excess of _____________. 

A.  Water. 

B.  Finer particles. 

C.  Middle sized particle. 

D.  Coarser particle. 

Answer =  Middle sized particle

454.  In order to avoid segregation, the concrete should not be thrown from a height.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

455.  Reinforced cement concrete is equally strong in taking __________. 

A.  Tensile and compressive stresses. 

B.  Compressive and shear stresses. 

C.  Tensile, compressive and shear stresses. 

D.  Tensile and shear stresses. 

Answer =  Tensile, compressive and shear stresses

456.  Plain cement concrete is strong in taking ___________. 

A.  Tensile stress. 

B.  Compressive stress. 

C.  Shear stress. 

D.  Tensile, compressive and shear stresses. 

Answer =  Compressive stress

457.  How many types of sulphates attack occur in concrete?. 

A. 1.0. 

B. 2.0. 

C. 3.0. 

D. 4.0. 

Answer = 2.0

458.  What is internal sulphates attack?. 

A.  Sulphate are more usually are a result of high-sulphate soils. 

B.  Sulphate are more usually are a result of ground water. 

C.  Industrial waste water. 

D.  Hydraulic cements. 

Answer =  Hydraulic cements

459.  What is internal sulphates attack?. 

A.  Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates. 

B.  Soil may contain excess of gypsum. 

C.  Sulphate are more usually are a result of ground water. 

D.  Industrial waste water. 

Answer =  Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates

460.  What is external sulphates attack?. 

A.  Industrial waste water. 

B.  Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates. 

C.  Hydraulic cements. 

D.  Portland cement might be over-sulphated. 

Answer =  Industrial waste water

461.  Tensile test can be performed on _____________. 

A.  Impact testing machine. 

B.  Universal testing machine. 

C.  Rockwell tester. 

D.  Brinell tester. 

Answer =  Universal testing machine

462.  The ability of the material to resist stress without failure is called ________________. 

A.  Strength. 

B.  Hardness. 

C.  Stiffness. 

D.  Toughness. 

Answer =  Strength

463.  In universal testing machine, for a circular section specimen, the gauge length is taken to be ______________. 

A.  3.65 √A. 

B.  4.65 √A. 

C.  5.65 √A. 

D.  6.65 √A where A is the area of cross section of the specimen. 

Answer =  5.65 √A

464.  “The shape of specimen used in compression test is Cube and cylinder”.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

465.  During compression test of cast iron, the failure occurs i.e. the crack appears along the _____________. 

A.  Diagonal. 

B.  Surface parallel to load applied. 

C.  Surface perpendicular to load applied. 

D.  Lateral. 

Answer =  Diagonal

466.  The property of a material that resists penetration or indentation by means of abrasion or scratching is known as ___________. 

A.  Strength. 

B.  Hardness. 

C.  Stiffness. 

D.  Toughness. 

Answer =  Hardness

467.  The indenter used in Brinell hardness test is a ____________. 

A.  Ball. 

B.  Cone. 

C.  Cylinder. 

D.  Pyramid. 

Answer =  Cone

468.  For hardness test of copper in Brinell hardness tester, the diameter of ball is ___________. 

A.  7mm. 

B.  1mm. 

C.  5mm. 

D.  3mm. 

Answer =  5mm

469.  In charpy test specimen, the angle of v-notch section is ____________. 

A.  30 degrees. 

B.  45 degrees. 

C.  60 degrees. 

D.  90 degrees. 

Answer =  45 degrees

470.  When vibrators are used for compaction, the consistency of concrete depends upon the ___________. 

A.  Type of mix. 

B.  Efficiency of vibrator. 

C.  Placing conditions. 

D.  Type of mix, efficiency of vibrator, pacing conditions. 

Answer =  Type of mix, efficiency of vibrator, pacing conditions

471.  Which of the following statement is correct while compacting concrete with vibrators?. 

A.  The vibrator should be inserted horizontally. 

B.  The vibrator should not be immersed through a full depth of freshly laid concrete. 

C.  The vibrator should not touch the form surface. 

D.  The vibrator should touch the form surface. 

Answer =  The vibrator should not touch the form surface

472.  The levelling operation that removes humps and hollows and give a true, uniform concrete surface is called ____________. 

A.  Screeding. 

B.  Floating. 

C.  Troweling. 

D.  Compacting. 

Answer =  Screeding

473.  The final operation of finishing the concrete surface is called _____________. 

A.  Screeding. 

B.  Floating. 

C.  Troweling. 

D.  Compacting. 

Answer =  Troweling

474.  The process of removing the irregularities from the surface of concrete left after screeding is called floating.. 

A. TRUE. 

B. FALSE. 

C. Nothing Can be Said. 

D. None of the mentioned. 

Answer = TRUE

475.  The process of hardening the concrete mixes by keeping its surface moist for a certain period is called ____________. 

A.  Curing. 

B.  Floating. 

C.  Troweling. 

D.  Compacting. 

Answer =  Curing

476.  After the curing of 28 days, the concrete gains strength upto _____________. 

A. 0.4. 

B. 0.6. 

C. 0.8. 

D. 1.0. 

Answer = 1.0

477.  The construction joints in cement concrete ___________. 

A.  Should be located where bending moment is large. 

B.  Should be located where shear force is large. 

C.  Should not be provided at the corners. 

D.  Should be spaced at a distance of 3 m apart in case of huge structures. 

Answer =  Should not be provided at the corners

478.  For compacting large sections of mass concrete in structures, the type of vibrator used is ________________. 

A.  Internal vibrator. 

B.  External vibrator. 

C.  Screed vibrator. 

D.  Internal and Screed vibrator. 

Answer =  Internal vibrator

479.  What is flexural strength?. 

A.  The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture. 

B.  The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture. 

C.  The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n. 

D.  Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength. 

Answer =  The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture

480.  What is equivalent flexural load?. 

A.  The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture. 

B.  The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture. 

C.  The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n. 

D.  Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength. 

Answer =  The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n

481.  What is equivalent flexural strength?. 

A.  The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture. 

B.  The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture. 

C.  The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n. 

D.  Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength. 

Answer =  The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture

482.  What is equivalent flexural strength ratio?. 

A.  The stress value obtained when the peak load value is used in the equation of modulus of rupture. 

B.  The stress value representing the average flexural strength in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n obtained when Pe,n is used in the equation of modulus of rupture. 

C.  The load value representing the average load-carrying capacity in the post peak region up to a specified deflection of L/n. 

D.  Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength. 

Answer =  Value of the mean equivalent flexural strength normalized with respect to mean flexural strength

483.  Calipers, capable of reading the dimensions of test specimens to an accuracy of ____________. 

A.  1mm. 

B.  .1mm. 

C.  10mm. 

D.  .5mm. 

Answer =  .1mm

484.  Rule (ruler/scale), capable of reading the dimensions of test specimens to an accuracy of ________. 

A.  1mm. 

B.  .1mm. 

C.  10mm. 

D.  .5mm. 

Answer =  1mm

485.  Load measuring device shall be capable of measuring loads to an accuracy of ___________. 

A.  1N. 

B.  10N. 

C.  1KN. 

D.  10KN. 

Answer =  10N

486.  The tolerances on the cross-section of the test specimens shall be within ± ____________. 

A. 0.01. 

B. 0.02. 

C. 0.03. 

D. 0.05. 

Answer = 0.02

487.  The flexural strength (or modulus of rupture) is obtained for the first peak load, Pmax as:_______________. 

A.  Pmax * L/bd2. 

B.  Pmax /Ld2. 

C.  Pmax * L/bd. 

D.  Pmax /L/bd2. 

Answer =  Pmax * L/bd2

488.  A data acquisition system capable of digitally recording and storing load and deflection data at least ___________. 

A.  1 times per sec. 

B.  5 times per sec. 

C.  10 times per sec. 

D.  15 times per sec. 

Answer =  10 times per sec

489.  Ring test is the determination for ___________. 

A.  Compressive strength. 

B.  Tensile strength. 

C.  Both Compressive and tensile strength. 

D.  Flexural strength. 

Answer =  Tensile strength

490.  Ring test is not the determination for ______________. 

A.  Breaking Force. 

B.  Tensile strength. 

C.  Ultimate Elongation. 

D.  Compressive strength. 

Answer =  Compressive strength

491.  Most small and common ___ load capacity machines will work for the loads of the materials tested to this specification.. 

A.  1N. 

B.  1KN. 

C.  10N. 

D.  10KN. 

Answer =  1KN

492.  Begin the test by separating the grips at a speed of _______________. 

A.  20 mm per minute. 

B.  20 inches per sec. 

C.  20 inches per minute. 

D.  20 cm per minute. 

Answer =  20 inches per minute

493.  At least 30 __ of crosshead travel or more for high elongation materials.. 

A.  cm. 

B.  inches. 

C.  mm. 

D.  m. 

Answer =  inches

494.  Ring tensile strength is __________. 

A.  Proportional to time. 

B.  Inversely proportional to time. 

C.  Inversely proportional to hydrostatic pressure. 

D.  Inversely proportional to average diameter of ring. 

Answer =  Inversely proportional to time

495.  The tensile properties of a low-pressure plasma-deposited nickel-base superalloy from ____________. 

A.  25 to 100° C. 

B.  250 to 1010° C. 

C.  25 to 1010° C. 

D.  100 to 250° C. 

Answer =  25 to 1010° C

496.  ASTM D1414 (D 1414) covers multiple properties of _____________. 

A.  T ring. 

B.  O ring. 

C.  C ring. 

D.  U ring. 

Answer =  O ring

497.  Load measuring device shall be capable of measuring loads to an accuracy of ___________. 

A.  1N. 

B.  10N. 

C.  1KN. 

D.  10KN. 

Answer =  10N

498.  The tolerances on the cross-section of the test specimens shall be within ± ___________. 

A. 0.01. 

B. 0.02. 

C. 0.03. 

D. 0.05. 

Answer = 0.02

499.  Which among the following is not a type of Non-destructive testing?. 

A.  Compression test. 

B.  Visual testing. 

C.  Ultrasonic testing. 

D.  Eddy current testing. 

Answer =  Compression test

500.  Identify the type of destructive testing ______________. 

A.  Radiographic test. 

B.  Dye penetrant test. 

C.  Creep test. 

D.  Visual testing. 

Answer =  Creep test

501.  Which among the following is the last step in magnetic particle test method?. 

A.  Observation and inspection. 

B.  Circular magnetization. 

C.  Demagnetization. 

D.  Magnetization. 

Answer =  Demagnetization

502.  Which of the following statements is/are true for ultrasonic test?. 

A.  Equipment used for ultrasonic testing is portable. 

B.  Complicated shapes can be easily scanned. 

C.  Waves generated are health hazardous. 

D.  Waves generated are health hazardous and complicated shapes can be easily scanned. 

Answer =  Equipment used for ultrasonic testing is portable

503.  During radiography test, which region absorbs less radiation and transmits more?. 

A.  Low and high density regions absorb and transmit same amount of radiation. 

B.  High density region. 

C.  Low density region. 

D.  Low and high density regions adsorb. 

Answer =  Low density region

504.  Which test is used to determine dimensions of any object?. 

A.  Ultrasonic test. 

B.  Torsion test. 

C.  Eddy current test. 

D.  Compression test. 

Answer =  Eddy current test

505.  In which type of test the capillary action principle is used?. 

A.  Probe test. 

B.  Bend liquid test. 

C.  Dye penetrant test. 

D.  Torsion test. 

Answer =  Dye penetrant test

506.  Which test can be performed without skilled labour?. 

A.  Probe test. 

B.  Bend liquid test. 

C.  Dye penetrant test. 

D.  Torsion test. 

Answer =  Dye penetrant test

507.  What is nondestructive test?. 

A.  Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing their usefulness. 

B.  Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing. 

C.  Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials with impairing their usefulness. 

D.  Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that do not impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing. 

Answer =  Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing their usefulness

508.  What is destructive test?. 

A.  Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing their usefulness. 

B.  Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing. 

C.  Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials with impairing their usefulness. 

D.  Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that do not impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing. 

Answer =  Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of the materials such as pressure testing

509.  An ultrasonic pulse velocity test is an _____________. 

A.  Ex-situ, nondestructive test. 

B.  In-situ, nondestructive test. 

C.  Ex-situ, destructive test. 

D.  In-situ, destructive test. 

Answer =  In-situ, nondestructive test

510.  In this test, the strength and quality of concrete or rock is assessed by measuring the ___ of an ultrasonic pulse.. 

A.  Length. 

B.  Velocity. 

C.  Weight. 

D.  Surface Tension. 

Answer =  Velocity

511.  Higher velocities indicate __________. 

A.  Good quality and continuity of the material. 

B.  Bad quality and continuity of the material. 

C.  Concrete with many cracks. 

D.  Concrete with many voids. 

Answer =  Good quality and continuity of the material

512.  Slower velocities may indicate ___________. 

A.  Good quality and continuity of the material. 

B.  Good quality and discontinuity of the material. 

C.  Bad quality and continuity of the material. 

D.  Concrete with many voids. 

Answer =  Concrete with many voids

513.  Mechanical pulse having an oscillation frequency in range of `_____________. 

A.  30 kHz to 40 kHz. 

B.  40 kHz to 50 kHz. 

C.  50 kHz to 60 kHz. 

D.  60 kHz to 70 kHz. 

Answer =  40 kHz to 50 kHz

514.  The number of cylces per second is the definition of ____________. 

A.  Wave speed. 

B.  Frequency. 

C.  Hertz. 

D.  Velocity. 

Answer =  Hertz

515.  A discontinuity that occurs during the casting of molten metal which may be caused by the splashing, surging, interrupted pouring is___________. 

A.  Burst. 

B.  Cold shut. 

C.  Flaking. 

D.  Blow hole. 

Answer =  Cold shut

516.  When the motion of the particles of a medium are at right angles to the direction of wave motion, the wave being transmitted is called a ___________. 

A.  Longitudinal wave. 

B.  Shear wave. 

C.  Surface wave. 

D.  Lamb wave. 

Answer =  Longitudinal wave

517.  A second name for compression wave is __________. 

A.  Longitudinal wave. 

B.  Shear wave. 

C.  Surface wave. 

D.  Lamb wave. 

Answer =  Lamb wave

518.  The interference field near the face of a transducer is often referred to as the ______________. 

A.  Fresnel zone. 

B.  Acoustic impedance. 

C.  Exponential field. 

D.  Phasing zone. 

Answer =  Fresnel zone

519.  Which cement is used in sewage and water treatment plants?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Low Heat Cement. 

C.  Sulphate Resisting Cement. 

D.  Quick Setting Cement. 

Answer =  Sulphate Resisting Cement

520.  Which cement is used for mainly building construction where strength required with age?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Low Heat Cement. 

C.  Portland Pozzolana Cement. 

D.  Quick Setting Cement. 

Answer =  Portland Pozzolana Cement

521.  Which cement is used for artificial marble?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Sulphate Resisting Cement. 

C.  Coloured Cement. 

D.  Quick Setting Cement. 

Answer =  Coloured Cement

522.  Which cement is used to create bond with old concrete surface?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Expansive Cement. 

C.  Sulphate Resisting Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Expansive Cement

523.  Which cement is used to stored for longer duration in wet climatic conditions?. 

A.  Expansive Cement. 

B.  Ordinary Portland Cement. 

C.  Hydrophobic Cement. 

D.  Quick Setting Cement. 

Answer =  Hydrophobic Cement

524.  Which cement used in frost resistance concrete?. 

A.  OPC. 

B.  PPC. 

C.  AEC. 

D.  QSC. 

Answer =  AEC

525.  Which cement is used for the construction of water-retaining structure like tanks, reservoirs, retaining walls, swimming pools, dams, bridges, piers etc?. 

A.  Waterproof Portland Cement. 

B.  Colored Cement. 

C.  High Alumina Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Waterproof Portland Cement

526.  ____ cement is used for formwork that can be removed earlier and reused in other areas which save the cost of formwork.. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Colored Cement. 

C.  High Alumina Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Rapid Hardening Cement

527.  Which cement is mainly used for interior and exterior decorative works?. 

A.  Rapid Hardening Cement. 

B.  Colored Cement. 

C.  High Alumina Cement. 

D.  Low Heat Cement. 

Answer =  Colored Cement

528.  Which cement is used for works economic where considerations is predominant?Reservoirs, retaining walls, swimming pools, dams, bridges, piers etc.?. 

A.  Waterproof Portland Cement. 

B.  Colored Cement. 

C.  High Alumina Cement. 

D.  Blast Furnace Slag Cement. 

Answer =  Blast Furnace Slag Cement

529.  The _________ compressive strength required from structural consideration.. 

A.  Nominal. 

B.  Minimum. 

C.  Maximum. 

D.  No. 

Answer =  Minimum

530.  The adequate workability necessary for _________ compaction with the compacting equipment available.. 

A.  Half. 

B.  Quarter. 

C.  Full. 

D.  Double. 

Answer =  Full

531.  __________ water-cement ratio content to give adequate durability for the particular site conditions.. 

A.  Minimum. 

B.  Nominal. 

C. 0.5. 

D.  Maximum. 

Answer =  Maximum

532.  _________ cement content to avoid shrinkage cracking due to temperature cycle in mass concrete.. 

A.  Minimum. 

B.  Nominal. 

C. 0.5. 

D.  Maximum. 

Answer =  Maximum

533.  __________ has designated the concrete mixes into a number of grades as M10, M15.. 

A.  IS 456-2000. 

B.  IS 456-2010. 

C.  IS 513-1999. 

D.  IS 465-2000. 

Answer =  IS 456-2000

534.  What is the approx. mix proportion for M10?. 

A.  1:3:6. 

B.  1:2:4. 

C.  1:1.5:3. 

D.  1:1:2. 

Answer =  1:3:6

535.  What is the approx. mix proportion for M15?. 

A.  1:3:6. 

B.  1:2:4. 

C.  1:1.5:3. 

D.  1:1:2. 

Answer =  1:2:4

536.  What is the approx. mix proportion for M20?. 

A.  1:3:6. 

B.  1:2:4. 

C.  1:1.5:3. 

D.  1:1:2. 

Answer =  1:1.5:3

537.  What is the approx. mix proportion for M25?. 

A.  1:3:6. 

B.  1:2:4. 

C.  1:1.5:3. 

D.  1:1:2. 

Answer =  1:1:2

538.  Maximum nominal size of aggregates to be used in concrete may be as large as possible within the limits prescribed by __________. 

A.  IS 456-2000. 

B.  IS 456-2010. 

C.  IS 513-1999. 

D.  IS 465-2000. 

Answer =  IS 456-2000

539.  Depending on the degree of workability and placing condition determine the ___________. 

A.  Slump value. 

B.  The maximum size of aggregate. 

C.  The amount of mixing water. 

D.  The minimum water-cement ratio. 

Answer =  Slump value

540.  Depending on the economical availability and dimensions of the structure determine the _____________. 

A.  Slump value. 

B.  The maximum size of aggregate. 

C.  The amount of mixing water. 

D.  The minimum water-cement ratio. 

Answer =  The maximum size of aggregate

541.  For the given slump and maximum size of coarse aggregate determine the ______________. 

A.  Slump value. 

B.  The maximum size of aggregate. 

C.  The amount of mixing water. 

D.  The minimum water-cement ratio. 

Answer =  The amount of mixing water

542.  Determine the _______ either from strength considerations or from durability considerations.. 

A.  Slump value. 

B.  The maximum size of aggregate. 

C.  The amount of mixing water. 

D.  The minimum water-cement ratio. 

Answer =  The minimum water-cement ratio

543.  Determine the amount of cement per unit volume of concrete from ______________. 

A.  Slump value. 

B.  The maximum size of aggregate. 

C.  The amount of mixing water. 

D.  The maximum size of aggregate and the amount of mixing water. 

Answer =  The maximum size of aggregate and the amount of mixing water

544.  This cement content should ________ the cement content required based on durability criteria.. 

A.  Be more than. 

B.  Be equal to. 

C.  Be less than. 

D.  Not be less than. 

Answer =  Not be less than

545.  The lower the w/c ratio, ________ the strength of concrete. 

A.  Higher. 

B.  Lower. 

C.  Poor. 

D.  Moderate. 

Answer =  Higher

546.  The aim of the designer should always be to get concrete mixtures of optimum strength at __ cement content and ________ workability.. 

A.  Maximum, Nonacceptable. 

B.  Minimum, Nonacceptable. 

C.  Maximum, acceptable. 

D.  Minimum, acceptable. 

Answer =  Minimum, acceptable

547.  Maximum size of aggregates should not be larger than ___________. 

A.  1/5 the minimum dimension of structural members. 

B.  1/4 the minimum dimension of structural members. 

C.  1/3 the minimum dimension of structural members. 

D.  1/6 the minimum dimension of structural members. 

Answer =  1/5 the minimum dimension of structural members

548.  Maximum size of aggregates should not be larger than _______________. 

A.  1/3 the thickness of a slab. 

B.  1/2 the thickness of a slab. 

C.  1/1 the thickness of a slab. 

D.  1/4 the thickness of a slab. 

Answer =  1/3 the thickness of a slab

549.  According to IRC:15-2011, Characteristic Flexural Strength at 28 days. 

A.  4 N/mm2. 

B.  4.5 N/mm2. 

C.  5 N/mm2. 

D.  3.5 N/mm2. 

Answer =  4.5 N/mm2